He got back 5 quarters and 1 dime
5 quarters = 1.25 plus 1 dime = 1.35
The answers to the questions are:
- a. $33,750
- b. $36000
- c. $90000
a. <u>the straight-line method of depreciation</u>

= (240000 - 60000) / 4 * (9 / 12)
= $33,750
The debit is 33750 as well as the credit
b. <u> the units-of-production method of depreciation</u>
(240000 - 60000) / 60000 * 12000
= $36000
c. <u>the double-declining balance method of depreciation</u>
(24000 *2 /4) * (9/12)
= $90000
Read more on depreciation here: brainly.com/question/1203926
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Answer:
40 Rs 2 coins equal to Rs 80.and this amounts 140— 80= Rs60.if i exchange one Rs 2 by one Rs 5 balance amount decreases by Rs3.For exhausting Rs 60 i shall have to exchange 60/3=20 Rs 2 coins.Thus 20 Rs 5 coin shallb there.ans.
Step-by-step explanation:
answer not mine but hopefully it helps
Answer:
<h2>a₁ = 1 and r = 3</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:
u would use 3.14 as pie and they multiply it