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umka2103 [35]
3 years ago
15

Toby Company has budgeted three hours of direct labor per recliner at a standard cost of $30 per hour. During January, 650 actua

l hours were worked, completing 200 recliners. All were sold and Toby Company’s actually labor was $31 per hour. What is Toby Company’s direct labor efficiency variance for January?
Business
1 answer:
belka [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Direct labor efficiency variance=$1,500

Explanation:

Direct labor cost variance is the difference between the actual quantity of direct labor and the standard or budgeted quantity of direct labor multiplied by the standard cost of direct labor..

Step 1: Calculate Actual hours

Actual hours=650 hours

Step 2: Calculate the actual cost

Actual cost=actual hours×actual rate

Actual cost=(650 hrs×$31 per hour)=$20,150

Step 3: Calculate the standard cost

Standard cost=Total number of actual hours×standard rate

where;

Standard rate=$30 per hour

Total number of Actual hours=(200×3)=600 hours

replacing;

Standard cost=(600×30)=$18,000

Step 4: Calculate the direct labor efficiency variance

Efficiency variance=(Actual labor-budgeted labor)×standard price

where;

Actual labor=650 hours

Standard labor=600 hours

standard price=$30 per hour

replacing;

Direct labor efficiency variance=(650-600)×30

Direct labor efficiency variance=(50×30)=$1,500

Direct labor efficiency variance=$1,500

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Embezzlers who manipulate accounting records to conceal their fraud (or theft of assets) most often ____.Group of answer choices
Bingel [31]

Answer:

."Balance" the accounting equation by increasing expenses.

Explanation:

If an organization wants to manipulate its accounting records so that it could conceal their fraud so the best way is to balance the accounting equation by increasing the expenses so no one can judge it and they can fulfill their objective

Here,

Accounting equation is

Total assets = Total liabilities + stockholder equity

The company increases their expenses with a motive to earn high income and wants to hide it by this method

So in the given case, the same method is applied

5 0
3 years ago
A potential investor is seeking to invest $500,000 in a venture, which currently has 1,000,000 million shares held by its founde
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

a, 15%

b, 150,000

c, $ 3.30

d, = $3,333,333.33

e, $3,833,333.33

Explanation:

To solve this,

Note that we have been given a similar venture to compare to our venture.

The total shareholder's equity for the other venture (P) = $10,000,000 and the net income (E) = $1,000,000

Hence, Price/Earnings (P/E) for other venture = 10,000,000/1,000,000 = 10.0

Now for our venture, Earnings in the 5th year = $500,000

Assuming that P/E ratio for both the ventures to be equal, P/500,000 = 10.0

hence, total shareholder's value for our venture = $5,000,000 --------------- (1)

Now the investor invested $500,000 and expected 50% return after 5 years, hence the investor's value after 5 years would be equal to 500,000 * (1+50%) = $750,000 --------------- (2)

Now percent ownership of venture given to investor = (Value of investor's investment after 5 years/total value of all shareholders after 5 years)

Hence, divide (2) by (1)

percent ownership of venture given to investor = 750,000/5,000,000 = 0.15

or 15%

Therefore Answer to part 'a' is = 15%

Part (b) :For the percentage ownership given to new investor = 15%, total number of shares = 1,000,000

Hence, number of shares issued to new investor = 15% x 1,000,000 = 150,000

Hence, answer to part b = 150,000

Part (c): Amount invested by new investor = $500,000 and number of shares issued to him = 150,000

hence issue price of share = Amount invested / Number of shares issued

= 500,000/150,000 = $3.33

Hence, issue price per share = $3.33

Part (d):

The Pre money valuation is the value of the company before any external funding. In this case, the number of shares held with the founders before the new investor = 1,000,000 and the equity price = $3.33

hence, Value of the venture = 3.33 * 1,000,000 = $3,333,333.33

Hence, pre money valuation of the venture = $3,333,333.33

Part (e): Post money valuation of a company is the value of the company after external funding. In this case, investor invests $500,000 to the venture increasing the value of the company by the same amount.

Hence post money valuation = pre money valuation + Investment

= 3,333,333.33 + 500,000

= 3,833,333.33

Hence, post-money valuation of the venture = $3,833,333.33

7 0
3 years ago
What kind of risks can exist in a business?
andriy [413]
So many! Failing is the main one and losing everything
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You own a coffee shop where a cup of coffee sells for $2.99. Your cost on the cup of coffee is $0.90. Calculate the margin
Pepsi [2]

Answer:$2:09

Explanation:  If you subtract the 2 you will get your answer! :)

(Sorry I just read the question wrong)

3 0
3 years ago
Stallman Company took a physical inventory on December 31 and determined that goods costing $275,260 were on hand. Not included
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

Inventory at year-end: 344,000

Explanation:

The inventory should add the purchased goods from Pelzer as the possesion is transfer at shipping point.

The sales units to Alvarez should also be included as teh transfer is not complete yet. The term on this transaction are at destination.

Total inventory in transit: 28,940 + 39,800 = 68,740‬

on hand:   $   275,260

in-transit:  $<u>     68, 740  </u>

Total:         $  344,000

5 0
3 years ago
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