3rd one because they’re saying they did good but need to add more so that’s helpful
William Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet is a tragedy written early in his career about two young Italian star-crossed lovers whose deaths eventually reconcile their divided families.
<h3>Why didn't Romeo and Juliet tell their relatives about their marriage?</h3>
William Shakespeare, the play's playwright, does not dwell on the origins of the animosity between these two respectable families in Verona. It's been going on for a long time, and even the servants are involved. The Montagues and Capulets despise one other and are constantly on the verge of a battle.
The animosity between these two families is the root of all the problems in the drama.
The hatred between them has fueled the feud between Romeo and Tybalt, the servants of both households, and Juliet's internal anguish over the reality of her lover.
Therefore To marry is correct for the first question and The feud between the Capulets and the Montagues is for the second question.
For more information about Romeo and Juliet refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/10468114
The challenge Percy faces was having to fight his Pre-Algebra teacher, Mrs. Dodds, who was really a monster in disguise. He defeated her with a pen that turned into a sword that Mr. Brunner gave him.
The purpose for including the affair was to have character development in the story. Abigail was willing to do anything, including the attempt to try and kill Goody Proctor in order to obtain John. This also made the foundation of Abigail, Goody Proctor, and John and how they were all significant in story development. If the writer had left of the detail of the affair, we wouldn't know why Abigail was trying to get rid of Elizabeth unless we made blind assumptions.
