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vodomira [7]
3 years ago
8

Dots sells T-shirts for $2 and shorts for $3. In April, total sales were $576. People bought 3 times as many T-shirts as shorts.

  How many T-shirts and shorts did Dots sell?
Business
1 answer:
lyudmila [28]3 years ago
4 0
So here is how we are going to find the answer.
Given that T = $2 and S = $3 and the total amount is $576.
Since people bought 3 times <span>as many T-shirts as shorts, we can say that S = 3 (T)
Therefore: T + 3 (T) = 576
4T = 576
T= $144
S = 3 (T)
S = 3 (144)
S = $432

Now that we have the total amount of each items, we will divide them with the corresponding price.
T = $2, 144 divided by 2 and we get 72. Therefore, 72 T-shirts were sold. 
S = $3, So, 432 divided by 3, and we get 144. Therefore, 144 shorts were sold.
Hope this answers your question. Have a great day!</span>
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Answer:

Explanation:

MTV and cable channels can have higher operating profits largely because they have lower costs and can reach very specific demographic groups quite easily. MTV and Nickleodeon are typically not paying high and uncertain prices for their shows. They air mainly reruns of proven shows or relatively low-cost reality shows. This means that they have more cost certainty.

In addition, they have very clear target audiences where the networks do not. MTV is clearly aimed at teens and young adults while Nickleodeon is a kids' channel. Advertisers are attracted to channels with such clear demographics.

As far as Porter's five forces go, the most likely reason for the higher cable profits would have to do with brand equity and the lower propensity among buyers to substitute.

These would mean that cable channels have a lower threat of new competition and a lower threat of substitute products. It is true that it is easy for a new cable channel to be created, but it is much harder for such a channel to get the name recognition and brand equity that MTV and Nickleodeon have.

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3 years ago
3. Suppose that all households hold all their wealth in assets that automatically rise in value when the aggregate price level r
alexira [117]

Answer:

What happens to the wealth effect of a change in the aggregate price level as a result of this allocation of assets?

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Will aggregate demand still be downward sloping? Why or why not?

  • The aggregate demand curve sill still be downward sloping because as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded will still decrease. An inverse relationship exists between price changes and quantity demanded.
8 0
3 years ago
The primary objectives of control over inventory are
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer: The correct answer is to safeguard the inventory and reporting the inventory on the financial statements.

Explanation: One of the primary objectives of control over inventory is to safeguard the inventory from damage or theft. The second objective is to report the inventory on the financial statements.

4 0
3 years ago
The following lots of a particular commodity were available for sale during the year: Beginning inventory 10 units at $30 First
irakobra [83]

Answer:

Fifo Ending Inventory = $ 690

Explanation:

The first in first out method implies that only the units at the end are left out in the ending inventory.                

Fifo Ending Inventory = $ 690

10 units from third purchase at $ 35= $ 350

10 units from second purchase at $ 34= $ 340

Total 20 units FIFo method = $ 690

Working

         

                                                                  Total Cost

Beginning inventory        10 units at $30           $ 300

First purchase                 25 units at $32            $ 800

Second purchase            30 units at $34            $ 1020

Third purchase                10 units at $35            $ 350

6 0
3 years ago
Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. Stock A has an expected return of 17.6%, a beta of 1.45 on factor 1, and a beta o
ehidna [41]

Answer:

The risk premium on factor 2 = 9.26%.

Explanation:

Let us denote the risk premium of factor 2 as x

Below is the formula we can use to calculate the risk premium of factor 2.

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17.6% = (1.45*3.2%) + 0.86x+5%

17.6 = 4.64 + 0.86x+5%

17.6 - 4.64 - 5= 0.86x

7.96 = 0.86x

x = 7.96/0.86 =9.2558

The risk premium on factor 2 = 9.26%.

5 0
4 years ago
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