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2 years ago

What is the mean of 374, 286, 397 and 423

Mathematics

1 answer:

quester [9]2 years ago

7 0

374+286+397+423 =1480 ÷4 = 370 is mean

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1¾-2¼<br>pls give me formula

sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

=7/4 - 9/4 = -2/4

Step-by-step explanation:

1¾ = (4×1+3)/4

2¼ = (4×2+1)/4

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I don't understand this at all. can someone explain?

ElenaW [278]

Answer:

In order, your numbers are

22, 45, 75, 89, 89, 95, 100

The median is the number that is in the middle numbers of all your numbers. The median is 89, since it is in the very middle.

The mean is all your numbers added together and then divided by how ever many numbers you have. 22 + 45 + 75 + 89 + 89 + 95 + 100 = 515. Since you have 7 numbers, you would divide 515 by 7, which equals 73.5. The mean is 73.5.

The mode is the number that has the most numbers(not sure how to word it) Since 89 has two of the numbers, and no other numbers have duplicates, your mode is 89.

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2 years ago

g 78% of all Millennials drink Starbucks coffee at least once a week. Suppose a random sample of 50 Millennials will be selected

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

$np=50*0.78=39 \geq 10$

$n(1-p)=50*(1-0.78)=11 \geq 10$

Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

$p \sim N (p, \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})$

With the following parameters:

$\mu_ p = 0.78$

$\sigma_p = \sqrt{\frac{0.78*(1-0.78)}{50}}= 0.0586$

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2 years ago

What is 2 plus 2 equal

svet-max [94.6K]

Answer- seriously? Not sure if I should answer this. But it’s 4 (duh)

Step-by-step explanation:

You already know. You have two, add two, 4.

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3 years ago

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