4a + 3 = 11...subtract 3 from both sides
4a + 3 - 3 = 11 - 3...simplify
4a = 8 ....divide both sides by 4
(4/4)a = 8/4...simplify
1a, or just a = 2 <==
Beta= 1.3
Debt to equity ratio= 0.4
Market rate of return= 11.6%
= 11.6/100
= 0.116
Tax rate= 32%
= 32/100
= 0.32
Risk free rate= 3.3%
= 3.3/100
= 0.033
Pretax cost of debt= 7.2%
= 7.2/100
= 0.072
The firm's WACC can be calacluated as follows
RS= 0.033+1.3(0.116-0.033)
= 0.033+1.3(0.083)
= 0.033+0.1079
= 0.1409
WACC= (1/1.4)(0.1409)+(2/1.4) (0.072)(1-0.32)
= (0.7142)(0.1409) + (1.4285)(0.072)(0.68)
= 0.1006+0.0699
= 0.1705(100)
= 17.05%
Hence the firm's WACC is 17.05%
Answer: it’s A..
Step-by-step explanation:
No, because it fails the vertical line test.
8x-8...............I think so if it’s distributed
