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4 years ago

Why is inappropriate timing a communication barrier

2 answers:

8 0

“If a message is not sent in inappropriate time, the message will not have the effect that it should have, as the intention will not be met. This causes barrier in communication. So, the time of the message should be accurate.”

hoa [83]4 years ago

3 0

if someone is caught off guard by a question or statement they will not know how to react in a way they would have if there was appropriate timing

Explanation:

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A company's activities for year two included the following: Gross sales $3,600,000 Cost of goods sold 1,200,000 Selling and admi

slava [35]

Answer:

$1,273,300

Explanation:

The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Gross sales - sales returns - Cost of goods sold - Selling and administrative expense - prior-year understatement of amortization expense + Gain on sale of stock portfolio securities + Gain on disposal of a discontinued business segment - income tax expense

where, income tax expense would be

= ( Gross sales - sales returns - Cost of goods sold - Selling and administrative expense - prior-year understatement of amortization expense + Gain on sale of stock portfolio securities + Gain on disposal of a discontinued business segment) × income tax rate

= ($3,600,000 - $34,000 - $1,200,000 - $500,000 - $59,000 + $8,000 + $4,000) × 30%

= $545,700

So, the net income would be

= $3,600,000 - $34,000 - $1,200,000 - $500,000 - $59,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 - $545,700

= $1,273,300

8 0

3 years ago

Job A3B was ordered by a customer on September 25. During the month of September, Jaycee Corporation requisitioned $1,800 of dir

-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

$11,700

Explanation:

The computation of the balance in the work in process at the end of the month is shown below:

= Direct material cost + direct labor cost + manufacturing overhead cost percentage of direct labor cost

= $1,800 + $3,300 + $3,300 × 200%

= $1,800 + $3,300 + $6,600

= $11,700

We simply added the direct material cost, direct labor cost and the manufacturing overhead cost so that the ending balance could arrive

5 0

3 years ago

During 2009, Accent Toys Plc., which began business in October of that year, purchased 15,000 units of a toy at cost of $10 per

telo118 [61]

Answer:

$183,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of goods sold using the FIFO method is shown below:

= Number of units purchased × per unit + additional units purchased × per unit

= 15,000 units × $10 + 3,000 units × $11

= $150,000 + $33,000

= $183,000

Since there are 18,000 units are sold

out of which 15,000 are at $10 and the remaining 3,000 units are at $11 and the same is to be considered

5 0

3 years ago

Miller Corporation has a premium bond making semiannual payments. The bond has a coupon rate of 8 percent, a YTM of 6 percent, a

noname [10]

Answer:

Miller-bond:

today: $ 1,167.68

after 1-year: $ 1,157.74

after 3 year: $ 1,136.03

after 7-year: $ 1,084.25

after 11-year: $ 1,018.87

at maturity: $ 1,000.00

Modigliani-bond:

today: $ 847.53

after 1-year: $ 855.49

after 3 year: $ 873.41

after 7-year: $ 918.89

after 11-year: $ 981.14

at maturity: $ 1,000.00

Explanation:

We need to solve for the present value of the coupon payment and maturity of each bonds:

Miller:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 80.000

time 12

rate 0.06

$80 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-12} }{0.06} = PV\\$

PV $670.7075

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 12.00

rate 0.06

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.06)^{12} } = PV$

PV 496.97

PV c $670.7075

PV m $496.9694

Total $1,167.6769

In few years ahead we can capitalize the bod and subtract the coupon payment

after a year:

1.167.669 x (1.06) - 80 = $1,157.7375

after three-year:

1,157.74 x 1.06^2 - 80*1.06 - 80 = 1136.033855

If we are far away then, it is better to re do the main formula

after 7-years:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 80.000

time 5

rate 0.06

$80 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-5} }{0.06} = PV\\$

PV $336.9891

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 5.00

rate 0.06

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.06)^{5} } = PV$

PV $747.26

PV c $336.9891

PV m $747.2582

Total $1,084.2473

1 year before maturity:

last coupon payment + maturity

1,080 /1.06 = 1.018,8679 = 1,018.87

For the Modigliani bond, we repeat the same procedure.

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 30.000

time 24

rate 0.04

$30 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-24} }{0.04} = PV\\$

PV $457.4089

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 24.00

rate 0.04

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{24} } = PV$

PV 390.12

PV c $457.4089

PV m $390.1215

Total $847.5304

And we repeat the procedure for other years

7 0

4 years ago

The basic economic argument for greater income equality is that:

krok68 [10]

The answer is that a more equal distribution of a given amount of income will increase the total utility of consumers. Income Inequality is common nowadays and is considered to be a market failure. Three causes of falling wages and the rise of income inequality is due to technology, trades and institutions. Large wages focuses on workers with high levels of education and skills.

7 0

3 years ago