Options are not provided in the question. The complete question is as following:
The role that p53 protein plays in suppressing inappropriate progression through the cell cycle depends on all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A) p53 indirectly blocks G1 to S transition in the cell cycle
B) p53 activates transcription of WAF1
C) p53 stability increases in the presence of unrepaired DNA lesions
D) the ability of p53 to bind DNA lesions
Answer: D) the ability of p53 to bind DNA lesions
Explanation:
The activities of the protein p53 are dependent on its binding DNA. Specific post-translational modifications to the p53 protein are important for efficient sequence-specific binding and transcription activities. Non-sequence-specific DNA binding can involve a broad range of p53 proteins and predominate as more serious DNA damage or greater induction of p53 protein. P53 Protein is not strictly essential for sensing and repairing DNA damage. Alternatively, p53 protein can control an apoptosis checkpoint by competing with DNA repair proteins for non-sequence-specific binding in the DNA duplex to exposed single-stranded regions.
Hence, while suppresing inappropriate progression through the cell cycle protein p53 does not bind to DNA lesions.
Hence, the correct option is D.
According to the research, the correct option is during normal cell division. Vertical gene transfer is the transfer of dna during normal cell division.
<h3>What is
Vertical gene transfer?</h3>
It is the one that occurs when genes normally during cell division are transmitted within the same species, that is, from their ancestors from the parental gene to the progeny, as in the case of bacteria that occurs by binary fission when bacteria duplicate.
This transfer of genetic material from parent organisms to offspring is through reproduction within the same species.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is during normal cell division. Vertical gene transfer is the transfer of dna during normal cell division.
Learn more about Vertical gene transfer here: brainly.com/question/15447274
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Explanation:
everything can be found in the picture
Answer:
In meiosis I there is prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, and telophase I and then in meiosis II there is prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, and telophase II.
Explanation:
In meiosis I we have;
Prophase I in which a pair of homologous chromosomes line up and form a tetrad. This is the stage during which genetic recombination occurs.
Metaphase I occurs, during which the homologous chromosomes line up opposite each other at the metaphase plate. The chromosomes orientate themselves randomly, thus homologous chromosomes are distributed randomly to daughter cells .
In Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cells but sister chromatids remain together. Each cell now has 23 chromosomes.
Telophase I in which the homologous chromosomes move to the poles and cytokinesis occurs. Two daughter cells are formed.
In meiosis II we have;
Prophase II (note: there is no interphase as seen in mitosis) during which chromosomes start to move to the metaphase II plate. There is no replication.
Next is metaphase II when the chromosomes align at the metaphase II plate.
In anaphase II the sister chromatids separate from each other and move towards opposite poles.
Lastly, in telophase II cytokinesis occurs again and four daughter cells are produced. Each of the four daughter cells has 23 chromosomes.
Answer: When the ball reaches the highest point and stops briefly.
Explanation: All thrown projectiles make a parabola, the peak of the parabola will have the greatest gravitational potential energy.
