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3 years ago

Write the percentage as a fraction or mixed number in simplest form

Mathematics

1 answer:

matrenka [14]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

here is how.

Step-by-step explanation:

for example if fraction is 10/25 then you multiply the bottom to a 100. 25 times 4 is 100 and then you do the same to the top. 10×4=40 therefore the awnser would be 40%

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18) Solve for x. (-2x-6° X )

aalyn [17]

Answer:

-8x

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 6°x from -2x.

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2 years ago

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Which statement about the graph f (x) = 2 (1)*

Bad White [126]

Third, the graph decreases from left to right because if you plug it into a graphing calculator - you can see that the line is a straight line, and does not decrease or increase whatsoever

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3 years ago

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In a particular faculty 60% of students are men and 40% are women. In a random sample of 50 students what is the probability tha

zimovet [89]

Answer:

a) The expected value is given by:

$E(X) = np = 50*0.4 = 20$

and the variance is given by:

$Var(X) =np(1-p) = 50*0.4*(1-0.4) = 12$

b) $P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)$

And we can find this probability with the following Excel code:

=1-BINOM.DIST(25,50,0.4,TRUE)

And we got:

$P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)=0.0573$

c) 1) Random sample (assumed)

2) np= 50*0.4= 20 >10

n(1-p) =50*0.6= 30>10

3) Independence (assumed)

Since the 3 conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation:

$X \sim N(\mu = 20 , \sigma= 3.464)$

d) $P(X>25) = 1-P(Z< \frac{25-20}{3.464}) = 1-P(z$

e) $P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)$

$P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)= 1-P(Z$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=50, p=0.4)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

The expected value is given by:

$E(X) = np = 50*0.4 = 20$

and the variance is given by:

$Var(X) =np(1-p) = 50*0.4*(1-0.4) = 12$

Part b

For this case we want to find this probability:

$P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)$

And we can find this probability with the following Excel code:

=1-BINOM.DIST(25,50,0.4,TRUE)

And we got:

$P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)=0.0573$

Part c

1) Random sample (assumed)

2) np= 50*0.4= 20 >10

n(1-p) =50*0.6= 30>10

3) Independence (assumed)

Since the 3 conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation:

$X \sim N(\mu = 20 , \sigma= 3.464)$

Part d

We want this probability:

$P(X>25) = 1-P(Z< \frac{25-20}{3.464}) = 1-P(z$

Part e

For this case we use the continuity correction and we have this:

$P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)$

$P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)= 1-P(Z$

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3 years ago

Nora invested $1,500 in a bond at a simple interest rate of 3%. How much will the bond be worth in total after 10 years?

attashe74 [19]

<h2>The bond will be worth in total after 10 years is =$1,950</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Nora invested $1,500 in at a bond simple interest rate of 3%

here P= $1500 R= 3% and t = 10year

Simple interest(I) = $\frac{P\times R \times t }{100}$

=$ $\frac{1500\times 3 \times 10}{100}$

=$ 450

<h3>The bond will be worth in total after 10 years is = $1,500+ $450</h3><h3> =$1,950</h3>

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3 years ago

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xeze [42]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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