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joja [24]
3 years ago
3

Why might kipling have used india as a setting for his novel kim?

English
2 answers:
Sindrei [870]3 years ago
7 0

Like many Asian and African countries, India was under British rule during Kipling's lifetime. Colonialism was a major economic and political factor in establishing the role of Britain as a world power. And it was a subject of great interest to the upper classes in Britain. Colonial India offered Kipling a context in which to examine the relationship between the British rulers and the people they ruled.

We have reason to believe that Kipling was in favor of colonialism. However, he may have used this provocative setting to explore subtleties about power, superiority, and colonialism, especially by presenting the story from the viewpoint of Kim, who was British by birth but lived among the Indians.

India is also an excellent place to set a story for a young reader. A faraway country is an intriguing place to set stories of mystery, adventure, and unusual experiences.

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]3 years ago
5 0
Rudyard Kipling was interested in imperialism and colonialism, especially the Great Game between Great Britain and Russia, which was a scramble for influence in central Asia. India was a setting that captured these dynamics, and was Britain's greatest foothold in the region.
India was also an ideal setting to illustrate the impact of imperialism on both the occupier and the occupied territory, and to explore the challenges that both face. 
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