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solniwko [45]
3 years ago
14

In the Vasquez Corporation, any overapplied or underapplied manufacturing overhead is closed out to Cost of Goods Sold. Last yea

r, the Corporation incurred $27,000 in actual manufacturing overhead cost, and applied $29,000 of manufacturing overhead cost to jobs. The beginning and ending balances of Finished Goods were equal, and the Corporation's Cost of Goods Manufactured for the year totaled $71,000. Given this information, Cost of Goods Sold, after adjustment for any overapplied or underapplied manufacturing overhead, for the year must have been: Group of answer choices
Business
1 answer:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Cost of Goods Sold, after adjustment for overapplied manufacturing overhead, for the year must have been $69,000.

Explanation:

From the question, we have:

Applied manufacturing overhead cost = $29,000

Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $27,000

Cost of Goods Manufactured for the year = $71,000

Overapplied manufacturing overhead = Applied manufacturing overhead cost - Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $29,000 - $27,000 = $2,000

Therefore, we have:

Cost of Goods Sold = Cost of Goods Manufactured for the year - Overapplied manufacturing overhead = $71,000 - $2,000 = $69,000

Therefore, Cost of Goods Sold, after adjustment for overapplied manufacturing overhead, for the year must have been $69,000.

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True or false: In a stock redemption, the stock redeemed by the corporation must be immediately canceled.
Rina8888 [55]

Answer: False

Explanation:

A stock redemption refers to a scenario where a company calls back its shares from shareholders. Not all shares allow for this to happen as there would have to be a provision in the stock that allows it to happen.

When a company performs a redemption, they do not have to cancel the shares immediately. They can either choose to retire them or they can keep them in reserve as treasury stock.

5 0
4 years ago
An increase in the rate of expected inflation will Group of answer choices shift the demand for loanable funds to the left (down
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

shift demand and supply for loanable funds to the right (up), increasing interest rates.

Explanation:

According to the Fisher hypothesis when there is an increase in the expected inflation there is an equal increase in nominal interest rates.

As interest rates rise demand and supply for loanable funds will rise. This is illustrated in the attached diagram. Interest rate moves from i0 to i1.

Inflation is a reduction in the purchasing power of money. When inflation increases money regulation agencies reduce supply of money as a way to reduce price increase. This in turn reduces the amount of loanable funds commercial banks have to give out

4 0
4 years ago
Josh purchased 100 shares of XOM for $76.63 per share at the beginning of 2007. He received dividends per share of $1.37 (2007),
never [62]

Answer:

The IRR is 4.08%

Explanation:

In calculating the internal rate of return in excel,the cash outflow of $76.63 is shown in year 0 with a negative sign to indicate that it is the initial investment on the share, followed by dividends in received in later years shown as positive figures ,however in the fifth the dividend received and the cash received from disposing of the share were added together to show total cash inflow in the last year.

The computation of IRR is shown below

IRR for the share purchase  

 

Years Cash flow

0 -76.63

1 1.37

2 1.55

3 1.66

4 1.74

5 86.61  

IRR 4.08%

Find attached for detailed computation.

Download xlsx
4 0
3 years ago
Chegg Megan Corp. recognizes revenue over time to account for long-term contracts. At the date the contract is signed, the price
anzhelika [568]

Answer: -$30,000

Explanation:

Gross profit for the year is calculated by multiplying the expected profit to be made by the cost - to -cost ratio and then subtracting the gross profit expected in the previous year.

Cost to cost ratio = Costs incurred till date / Costs to be incurred in total

<h2>Year 1</h2>

Cost to cost ratio = 200,000 / ( Costs incurred + Cost to complete)

= 200,000 / (200,000 + 200,000)

= 50%

Gross profit = 50% * ( Price - estimated cost to complete)

= 50% ( 600,000 - 400,000)

= $100,000

<h2>Year 2 </h2>

Cost to cost ratio = 350,000 / ( Costs incurred + Cost to complete)

= 350,000 / (350,000 + 150,000)

= 350,000 / 500,000

= 70%

Gross profit = 70% * ( Price - estimated cost to complete) - Previous Gross

= 70% ( 500,000 - 400,000) - 100,000

= -$30,000

<h2><u>Gross Loss</u> of $30,000 in Year 2</h2><h2></h2>

<em>Note; Ignore the first comment</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Your company is deciding whether to invest in a new machine. The new machine will increase cash flow by $321,000 per year. You b
hammer [34]

Answer:

NPV= $31,824.16

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $321,000

Initial investmeent= $1,710,000

Residual value= $0

Rate of return= 13%

To calculate the net present value, we need to use the following formula:

NPV= -Io + ∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]

Io= -1,710,000

Cf1= 321,000/1.13= 284,070.80

Cf2= 321,000/1.13^2= 251,390.09

Cf3= 321,000/1.13^3= 222,469.10

And so on...

Cf10= 321,000/1.13^10= 94,562.86

<u>∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]= 1,741,824.16</u>

NPV= 1,710,000 + 1,741,824.16= $31,824.16

6 0
3 years ago
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