Answer: a. percentage change analysis.
B. Blue Hamster Manufacturing Inc.’s ability to meet its debt obligations has improved since its debt-to-equity ratio decreased from 0.60 to 0.38.
D. A decline in the inventory turnover ratio could likely be explained by operational difficulties that the company faced, which led to duplicate orders placed to vendors
Explanation:
1. The analysis which has to do with the calculation of the growth rates of all items from balance sheet and the income statement which is relative to a base year is referred to as the percentage change analysis.
2. The statements that can be included in the analysis report from the question include:
• Blue Hamster Manufacturing Inc.’s ability to meet its debt obligations has improved since its debt-to-equity ratio decreased from 0.60 to 0.38
• A decline in the inventory turnover ratio could likely be explained by operational difficulties that the company faced, which led to duplicate orders placed to vendors.
Answer:
the answer is True.
Explanation:
There are 2 traits in an effective market segment.
- It is internally homogeneous (potential customers in the same segment prefer the same product qualities ).
- It is externally heterogeneous. In other words, potential customers from different segments have different quality preferences. It responds consistently to a given market stimulus.
Answer:
A. The total cost of the equipment.
Explanation:
Even if Jambon has not used the equipment in 2005 because it can only be used for the product that is to be developed in five years, Jambon still had to pay for the full cost of the equipment.
Because the equipment is laying idle, it is not depreciating. Therefore, the expense that Jambon is not incurring, is the depreciation expense associated with this equipment. This depreciation expense will only be seen in five years, when the product it was bought for is finally completed.
Answer:
Mortgage, 20%, 80%
Explanation:
Typically required on Mortgage loans when the down payment is less than 20% and loan-to-value ratio is in excess of 80%. Loans with higher LTVs don't conform to Fannie Mae/Freddie Mac guidelines, so a lender may require PMI to offset the risk.
Answer:
The normal balance of liabilities is a credit.
Explanation:
In the double entry system one account must be debited in order for the other to be credited.
There are different balances for each account. For the accounts with normal credit balance a credit causes it to increase while a debit decreases it.
For accounts with negative balance a credit reduces its balance while a debit increases its balance.
- Asset: Debit
- Expense: Debit
- Dividends: Debit
- Liability: Credit
- Owner’s Equity: Credit
- Revenue: Credit
- Retained Earnings: Credit
Liabilities are debt owed by a business. When payment is given out to settle a debt (a debit) it reduces to amount a business owes.
If more loans are collected (a credit) the liability figure increases.
So liability has a normal credit balance