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ryzh [129]
3 years ago
9

Regardless of whether a business uses FIFO, LIFO, or weighted average cost for its inventory costing system, cost of goods avail

able for sale must be allocated at the end of the period between these two categories. Multiple Choice beginning inventory and cost of goods sold. net purchases during the period and ending inventory. ending inventory and beginning inventory. ending inventory and cost of goods sold.
Business
1 answer:
REY [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Cost of goods available for sale must be allocated at the end of the period between ending inventory and cost of goods sold.

Explanation:

Cost of goods available for sale can be described as the <u>maximum amount</u> of inventory, stock, or goods that is possible for a firm to sell during an accounting period. It is the maximum amount because it is not possible for a firm to sell more than the cost of goods available for sale.

The cost of goods available for sale is obtained by adding beginning inventory and net purchases during an accounting period. This can be stated as follows:

COGAFS = BI + NP ............................... (1)

Where;

COGAFS = Cost of goods available for sale

BI = Beginning inventory

NP = Net purchases

At the end of an accounting period, ending inventory is deducted from the cost of goods available for sale to obtain cost of goods sold as follows:

COGS = COGAFS - EI ............................ (2)

Where;

COGS = Cost of goods sold

COGAFS = Cost of goods available for sale

EI = Ending inventory

Rearranging equation (2) and solve for COGAFS, we have:

COGFAS = COGS + EI ........................... (3)

Equation (3) therefore implies that the correct option is "cost of goods available for sale must be allocated at the end of the period between ending inventory and cost of goods sold".

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Every year managers are given targets for categorizing their employees’ performance at the end of the year. The managers are all
Alla [95]

Answer:

forced distribution

Explanation:

Forced distribution method is the oldest method used in various industries to evaluate the performance of any class of employees based on some standard norms as set by the company under this method.

It basically distributes each class of employee into category of management, lower, middle or upper.

This is forced because there is no change in such evaluation method, despite even the change in the company's working style is there.

But in the given instance the company has followed this forced distribution.

8 0
3 years ago
A price change causes the quantity demanded of a good to decrease by 30%, while the total revenue of that good increases by 15%.
Furkat [3]
True the answer is true
4 0
3 years ago
Why is opening a franchise often considered lower risk for an entrepreneur than setting up a new business?Please help me will gi
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

The opportunity to grow under a famous brand and enjoy the advantages of a larger group of business owners

Explanation:

Opening a franchise is often considered a lower risk for an entrepreneur than setting up a new business because of "The opportunity to grow under a famous brand and enjoy the advantages of a larger group of business owners."

Other benefits to derived include:

1. There is operational support from the franchisor during the lifetime of the business arrangement, which may cover finances, training, accounting, etc.

2. The franchisee's management abilities can be enhanced without extra cost

3. Transactions established on proven and famous brands.

6 0
2 years ago
5. The Bureau of Economic Analysis reported that, in real terms, overall consumer spending increased by $345.8 billion in 2015.
ikadub [295]

Answer & Explanation:

a. MPC = 0.50; Change in consumption spending = $345.8 billion

According to multiplier formula,

Change in real GDP/ Change in consumption spending = 1/(1-MPC) = 1/(1-0.5) = 1/0.5 = 2

So, Change in GDP = Change in consumption spending*2 = (345.8)*2 = $691.6 billion

Change in GDP = $691.6 billion

b. Change in investment = -$100

According to multiplier formula,

Change in real GDP/ Change in investment = 1/(1-MPC) = 1/(1-0.5) = 1/0.5 = 2

So, Change in GDP = Change in investment*2 = (-100)*2 = -200

So, total change in GDP = 691.6 - 200 = $491.6 billion

Change in real GDP = $491.6 billion

c. Percentage change in real GDP = (Change in Real GDP/GDP at the end of 2014)*100 = (491.6/15,982.3)*100 = 3.08%

7 0
3 years ago
Explain in your own words why in the short run a firm may continue to produce even at a loss provided the price is more than the
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer: The firms are faced with two options, the first is covering variable cost, which they can consider in a short run, which they can pay some of their fixed cost. If they shut down completely they would pay all their fixed costs.

Explanation:

The firms are faced with two options, the first is covering variable cost, which they can consider in a short run, which they can pay some of their fixed cost. Alternatively, if they shut down completely they would pay all their fixed costs. As long as the operating cost is not much, they would keep working.

8 0
3 years ago
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