Based on the given problem above, here is the solution.
Given: Iris's charge: 470
1 1/5 times her fee: additional hourly rate
? = fee for an hourly rate
What we need to do first is divide 470 by 7 hours, so 470/7 = 67.143/hour.
So Iris's per hour is 67.143 without the additional rate.
Now, let's look for the 1 1/5 of 470. 1 1/5 is equal to 1.2. So 470 x 1.2 = 564.
To get the total fee of her hourly rate, we add 67.143 and 564, so Iris's hourly rate then is 631.143 or 631.14.
Answer:
Binomial distribution requires all of the following to be satisfied:
1. size of experiment (N=27) is known.
2. each trial of experiment is Bernoulli trial (i.e. either fail or pass)
3. probability (p=0.14) remains constant through trials.
4. trials are independent, and random.
Binomial distribution can be used as a close approximation, with the usual assumption that a sample of 27 in thousands of stock is representative of the population., and is given by the probability of x successes (defective).
P(x)=C(N,x)*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where N=27, p=0.14, and C(N,x) is the number of combinations of x items out of N.
So we need the probability of <em>at most one defective</em>, which is
P(0)+P(1)
= C(27,0)*0.14^0*(0.86)^(27) + C(27,1)*0.14^1*(0.86^26)
=1*1*0.0170 + 27*0.14*0.0198
=0.0170+0.0749
=0.0919
Answer:
12.25
i think thats right
cause you would divided the 7 by four to get you 1.75 then multiply it by 7
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
in pic
Step-by-step explanation:
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