3 years ago

Mark as brainliest answer correctly and explain not dumb not long

Mathematics

1 answer:

nekit [7.7K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

○ I, II, and III

Step-by-step explanation:

Long explanation short, dividing an expression by 2 is the exact same as multiplying an expression by ½. That is to say, dividing a term is the exact same as multiplying by its multiplicative inverse, so all three of these would qualify.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

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