Question

Mark as brainliest answer correctly and explain not dumb not long

Answer 1

Answer:

○ I, II, and III

Step-by-step explanation:

Long explanation short, dividing an expression by 2 is the exact same as multiplying an expression by ½. That is to say, dividing a term is the exact same as multiplying by its multiplicative inverse, so all three of these would qualify.

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