1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Tomtit [17]
3 years ago
14

Question 4 5 points

History
1 answer:
Ann [662]3 years ago
5 0
Ok so what kind of question is that
You might be interested in
Why was the Neolithic revolution necessary for civilization?
lora16 [44]

Answer:

resulted in the birth of agriculture

7 0
3 years ago
The armistice with Germany was signed by
horsena [70]

Answer:

Marshal Foch

Explanation:

Also known as the Armistice of Compiègne from the place where it was signed at 5:45 a.m. by the French Marshal Foch, it came into force at 11:00 a.m. Paris time on 11 November 1918 and marked a victory for the Allies and a defeat for Germany, although not formally a surrender.

Kono Dio Da!!!

4 0
3 years ago
During ww2 what was the agreement between Germany and Russia
kupik [55]

Answer: the treaty of non-aggression

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
23. How did the Treaty of Versailles affect global events after World War I?
jek_recluse [69]
D. because the treaty had nothing to do with africans, neither independent nations in the west, and not all the alliances were in Europe 
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To what extent did feudalism contribute to the french revolution
Leto [7]

I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.

The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.

Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What country does fnaf take place in
    8·2 answers
  • Which of the following groups did not invade the regions of western Europe during the ninth and tenth centuries?
    8·1 answer
  • How were the European colonies involved in the war during World War I? A. Most colonies revolted and broke away from European co
    14·2 answers
  • Please help me I'm stuck
    15·2 answers
  • Jim does not agree with the current leader's views. Luckily, the election is coming up, and the opposing candidate, Phil Hend, l
    5·2 answers
  • Ya like jazz? even better, ya like rap?
    5·2 answers
  • Why were the settlers unable or unwilling to plant crops
    12·2 answers
  • respond to the meme old folks always poke ma at weddings and say you're next so I started doing the same thing to them at funera
    7·1 answer
  • Which idea does Cobb use to support his argument? Votes cast by free African Americans in the South should not be counted. The e
    5·2 answers
  • 1. The cause of campaign finance reform
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!