Answer:
Countries have a comparative advantage in production when they can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers.
Answer: Negative Sales Mix Variance
Explanation:
With regards to the above question, the company has a negative sales mix variance. First and foremost, we should know that the sales mix variance simply has to do with the difference between the actual sales mix and the budgeted sales mix of a company or organization.
From the question, there'll be negative sales mix variance and this will bring about a reduction in the revenue of the company as the budgeted sales will be lesser than actual sales. Therefore, Profit also reduces.
Answer:
a M1 would not change.
Explanation:
the checkable deposits are part of M1 as well as the currency and coins. Therefore, a component of M1 decrease (currency) while another of M1 (checkable deposits) increase.
As the banking system works with a 100-percent required reserve there is no multiplier effect from the deposit therefore M1 do not change.
Answer:
0.82
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the firm's asset beta
Using this formula
Firm's asset beta=Equity beta/(1+/D/E)
Let plug in the formula
Firm's asset beta=1.2/(1+0.47)
Firm's asset beta=1.2/1.47
Firm's asset beta=0.816
Firm's asset beta=0.82 (Approximately)
Therefore the firm's asset beta is 0.82
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
To close the underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account requires that the Cost of Goods Sold is debited, say with $100 while the Manufacturing Overhead account is credited with the same amount. Underapplied Manufacturing Overhead account means that a debit balance is left after applying the overhead to production. To close this debit, therefore, a credit entry is required to the manufacturing overhead account. The corresponding debit entry goes to the Cost of Goods Sold, or this may be apportioned among Cost of Goods Sold, Finished Goods Inventory, and Work-in-Process, as may be the case.
