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3 years ago

Bruh why is my accel class so hard?...

Mathematics

2 answers:

N76 [4]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

idk she sjssjwsjssksjw. w r w. r w r e. e s. s. w

Step-by-step explanation:

e. e e e. s d. t r w y t e. d y e e. t r w r t r

Hoochie [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

say aye if you hate school

Step-by-step explanation:

AYE

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Point Q’ is the image of Q (3,-4) under a reflection across the x-axis

7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

Q' (-3,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

A reflection across the x-axis would mean that only the x value of the point would change. This means that the y value would still be 4. To find the x value, just flip it to a negative. The negative of 3 is -3

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Rationalize the denominator and simplify. 6 /5-3

sattari [20]

Answer:

-9/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Take the LCM in the denominator

6/5-3

multiply the numerator and denominator by 5 to make the denominator 5.

6-3 (x5)

5 1 (x5)

=6-15

= -9

6 0

3 years ago

If m<1=6x+50 and m<2=4x+40 find x

Pepsi [2]

$\text{Adjacent angles on a straight line sum up to 180} \textdegree$

$\text{Therefore }\measuredangle 1 + \measuredangle 2 = 180 \textdegree$

$\text {Since } \measuredangle 1 = 6x+50 \text { and } \measuredangle 2 = x+40$

$(6x+50) + (4x+40) = 180$

$6x+50 + 4x+40 = 180$

$10x+90 = 180$

$10x = 180 - 90$

$10x = 90$

$x = 9$

Answer: x = 9

8 0

3 years ago

A prticular type of tennis racket comes in a midsize versionand an oversize version. sixty percent of all customers at acertain

svetlana [45]

Answer:

a) P(x≥6)=0.633

b) P(4≤x≤8)=0.8989 (one standard deviation from the mean).

c) P(x≤7)=0.8328

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We can model this a binomial experiment. The probability of success p is the proportion of customers that prefer the oversize version (p=0.60).

The number of trials is n=10, as they select 10 randomly customers.

We have to calculate the probability that at least 6 out of 10 prefer the oversize version.

This can be calculated using the binomial expression:

$P(x\geq6)=\sum_{k=6}^{10}P(k)=P(6)+P(7)+P(8)+P(9)+P(10)\\\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\geq6)=0.2508+0.215+0.1209+0.0403+0.006=0.633$

b) We first have to calculate the standard deviation from the mean of the binomial distribution. This is expressed as:

$\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{10*0.6*0.4}=\sqrt{2.4}=1.55$

The mean of this distribution is:

$\mu=np=10*0.6=6$

As this is a discrete distribution, we have to use integer values for the random variable. We will approximate both values for the bound of the interval.

$LL=\mu-\sigma=6-1.55=4.45\approx4\\\\UL=\mu+\sigma=6+1.55=7.55\approx8$

The probability of having between 4 and 8 customers choosing the oversize version is:

$P(4\leq x\leq 8)=\sum_{k=4}^8P(k)=P(4)+P(5)+P(6)+P(7)+P(8)\\\\\\P(x=4) = \binom{10}{4} p^{4}q^{6}=210*0.1296*0.0041=0.1115\\\\P(x=5) = \binom{10}{5} p^{5}q^{5}=252*0.0778*0.0102=0.2007\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\\\P(4\leq x\leq 8)=0.1115+0.2007+0.2508+0.215+0.1209=0.8989$

c. The probability that all of the next ten customers who want this racket can get the version they want from current stock means that at most 7 customers pick the oversize version.

Then, we have to calculate P(x≤7). We will, for simplicity, calculate this probability substracting P(x>7) from 1.

$P(x\leq7)=1-\sum_{k=8}^{10}P(k)=1-(P(8)+P(9)+P(10))\\\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\leq 7)=1-(0.1209+0.0403+0.006)=1-0.1672=0.8328$

7 0

3 years ago

Figure ABCD - Figure EFGH

Colt1911 [192]

<h3>Answer:</h3>

30.5 units

<h3>Step-by-step explanation:</h3>

We know that:

Trapezoid ABCD has one side that is 25 unit.
The other 3 sides (AB, BC, and CD) are 12 units.
EF = 6 units
EH = 12.5
Trapezoid ABCD is congruent to Trapezoid EFGH

If the 3 sides of the trapezoid ABCD are the same sides, then side EF, FG, GH must be of the same length because of congruence. The value of FG and GH must be the same length as EF. We can clearly see in the picture that EF is 6 units. Hence, EF is 6 units, FG is 6 units, and GH is 6 units. The work of the perimeter is shown below.

Work

=> 6(3) + 12.5
=> 18 + 12.5
=> 30.5 units

Hence, the perimeter of EFGH is 30.5 units.

$BrainiacUser1357$

4 0

2 years ago