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zalisa [80]
4 years ago
11

Anyone know how to do this

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x ≈ 4

Step-by-step explanation:

We use tan∅ to solve this:

tan30° = x/7

7(tan30°) = x

x = 4.04145

Remember that tangent is opposite over adjacent.

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The outside of a picture frame measures 14 in and 20 in 196in^2 of the picture shows find the thickness of the frame
LuckyWell [14K]
The described picture frame can be visualized into two separate parts. The first area is equal to the area using the outermost dimensions for the length and width. 
             Area = Length x Height
              Area = (20 in) x (14 in) 
              Area = 280 in²

We are given that the area is only equal to 192 in². We subtract this value from the computed area.
         Difference = 280 in² - 192 in²
               difference = 88 in²

This area is equal to the area of the hollow space inside the frame. That is equal to,
      height = 20 in - 2x
      length = 14 in - 2x

The area,
               88 = (20 - 2x)(14 - 2x)

Simplify the right hand side of the equation.
             88 = 280 - 68x + 4x²

Divide the equation by 4,
            22 = 70 - 17x + x²

Transposing,
                x² - 17x - 48 = 0
The factors of the equation is 58.2. 

Thus, the thickenss is equal to 58.2 in
5 0
4 years ago
The graph below shows two polynomial functions, f(x) and g(x):
neonofarm [45]
The answer is '<span>f(x) is an odd degree polynomial with a positive leading coefficient'.

An odd degree polynomial with a positive leading coefficient will have the graph go towards negative infinity as x goes towards negative infinity, and go towards infinity as x goes towards infinity.

An even degree polynomial with a negative leading coefficient will have the graph go towards infinity as x goes toward negative infinity, and go towards negative infinity as x goes toward infinity.

g(x) would have a a positive leading coefficient with an even degree, as the graph goes towards infinity as x goes towards either negative or positive infinity.
</span>
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which is a way to use prime factorization to find the least common multiple of 8 and 6?
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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Jackson mom limits the amout of time he is allowed to play video games . After jackson play for 9 .Inutes , his mom tells him th
vaieri [72.5K]
If we know that 30% of the time is used after 9 minutes we can write this mathematically as:

0.30x = 9
By solving for x we can determine the total time allowed to play games and so:

x =  \frac{9}{0.30}  = 30
The total time allowed to play games is 30 minutes. Since 9 minutes have lapsed 30-9=21 minutes left to play.
5 0
3 years ago
Consider the sequence given by a plus 8 pattern: 2, 10, 18, 26, ….
Finger [1]

Answer:

n = 1 second formula

n = 0 first formula

Step-by-step explanation:

I answer this in the other question you put, here it is again.

This is easy to get. We know the sequence cause it follows a pattern of 8, so let's try some values of n from 1 to 4, to get those numbers with the first formula:

n = 1,2,3,4

f(1) = 8(1) + 2 = 10

f(2) = 8(2) + 2 = 18

f(3) = 8(3) + 2 = 26

f(4) = 8(4) + 2 = 34

As you can see, with the first formula, the first term is 10, and not 2. The only way to get 2 with n = 1 is with the second formula:

f(1) = 8(1) - 6 = 2

f(2) = 8(2) - 6 = 10

f(3) = 8(3) - 6 = 18

f(4) = 8(4) - 6 = 26

With n = 1, the second formula was better and correct.

The first formula could be right only beggining with n = 0. Here is the proof:

f(0) = 8(0) + 2 = 2

6 0
4 years ago
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