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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following is a correct explanation for why the aggregate demand curve slopes​ downward? A. As the price level decre

asesdecreases​, consumers substitute moremore expensive goods for lessless expensive choices. B. As the price level decreasesdecreases​, the labor force increasesincreases. C. As the price level decreasesdecreases​, the real value of cash balances increasesincreases​, and total expenditures riserise. D. As the price level decreasesdecreases​, exports become moremore expensive overseas and imports become relatively lessless expensive​ domestically, and thus net exports riserise.

Business
1 answer:
Tems11 [23]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C. As the price level decreasesdecreases​, the real value of cash balances increasesincreases​, and total expenditures riserise. 

Explanation:

The aggregate demand curve is a curve that shows all the output demanded at different price levels in an economy.

The aggregate demand curve in downward sloping. This is according to the law of demand which says, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded and the lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded.  

Therefore, when prices fall, the real value of cash balances increases​, total expenditures rises and quantity demanded rises.

When prices fall, export increases and net export rises.

I hope my answer helps you

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Currently in​ Economica, the frictional rate of unemployment is 2.0​%, the structural rate of unemployment is 2.0​%, and the cyc
ollegr [7]

Answer:

7,5%

Explanation:

natural rate of unemployment is generally comprised of 3 unemployment types: structural rate of unemployment, cyclical rate of unemployment and frictional unemployment. This state exists even in a healthy environment commercially viable as workers will always seek for new jobs. At the time they leave to seek for new jobs, that period relates to natural rate of unemployment of the country or state.

so we add, frictional rate plus structural rate plus cyclical rate to get the figure for natural rate of unemployment.

6 0
3 years ago
The market value of​ Fords' equity, preferred​ stock, and debt are $ 7 ​billion, $ 2 ​billion, and $ 15 ​billion, respectively.
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

Ford's weighted average cost of capital is 8.22 %

Explanation:

Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the minimum return that the company expect from a project. It shows the risk of the company.

Calculation of WACC

WACC = Cost of equity + Cost of preferred​ stock + Cost of debt

Capital Source       Market Values     Weight      Cost      Total Cost

equity                         $ 7 ​billion          29.17%      13.6%       3.97 %

preferred​ stock         $ 2 ​billion            8.33%      12%          1.00 %

debt                           $ 15 ​billion         62.50%     5.2 %       3.25%

Total                          $ 24 billion                                          8.22 %

Cost of equity = Risk free rate + Beta × Risk Premium

                       =  4% + 1.2 × 8%

                       =  13.6%

Cost of preferred​ stock = Dividend/Market Price

                                       = $ 3/ $ 25 × 100

                                       = 12%

Cost of debt = interest × (1- tax rate)

                    = 8% × (1-0.35)

                    = 5.2 %

7 0
3 years ago
Wickland Company installs a manufacturing machine in its production facility at the beginning of the year at a cost of $127,000.
Brut [27]

Answer:

b. $31,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense using the straight-line method for the second year is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)  

= ($127,000- $3,000) ÷ (4 years)  

= ($124,000) ÷ (4 years)  

= $31,000

Hence, the correct option is b. $31,000

The units are to be ignored as the method i.e used is straight line so the same is to be considered

6 0
4 years ago
1) Banks hold excess and secondary reserves to
o-na [289]
1) Banks hold excess and secondary reserves toA) reduce the interest-rate risk problem.


2) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the task of bank asset management?
b. Banks seek to have the highest liquidity possible subject to earning a positive rate of return on their operations.

3) The goals of bank asset management include
d. purchasing securities with high returns and low risk.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.
6 0
3 years ago
If a firm manager has a base salary of $100,000 and also receives 5 percent of all profits, what percentage of his/her final inc
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is 42.86%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Base salary = $100,000

Extra earnings = 5% of all profit

Total Profit = $1,500,000

So, first we calculate the total earning received by the manager.

So, Total Earning = Base Salary + 5% of $1,500,000

= $100,000 + $75,000

= $175,000

Now, we can calculate the percentage of his/her final income from a profit-sharing plan by using following formula:

Percentage of final income = (Share in profit ÷ Total earning) × 100

= ($75,000 ÷$175,000) × 100

= 42.86%

5 0
3 years ago
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