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soldier1979 [14.2K]
3 years ago
13

Mickley Company’s plantwide predetermined overhead rate is $18.00 per direct labor-hour and its direct labor wage rate is $12.00

per hour. The following information pertains to Job A-500: Direct materials $ 220 Direct labor $ 60 Required: 1. What is the total manufacturing cost assigned to Job A-500? 2. If Job A-500 consists of 60 units, what is the unit product cost for this job?
Business
1 answer:
ipn [44]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Predetermined overhead rate= $18.00 per direct labor-hour

Direct labor wage rate= $12.00 per hour.

Job A-500

Direct materials $220

Direct labor $60

<u>First, we need to calculate the direct labor hours:</u>

Direct labor hours= 60/12= 5

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 18*5

Allocated MOH= $90

<u>Finally, the unit cost:</u>

<u></u>

Total cost= 220 + 60 + 90= $370

Unit cost= 370/60

Unit cost= $6.17

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The answer is "$100,000"

Explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

Given value:

\text{Employees salary}= \$ 80,000\\\\\text{Insurance}= \$ 6,000\\\\\text{Utility cost}=\$ 5,000\\\\\text{Supplies}= \$ 9,000

\text{Annual Explicit costs}= ?

Formula:

\text{Annual Explicit costs}= \bold{\text{Employees salary}+ \text{Insurance}+ \text{Utility cost}+ \text{Supplies}}

                                   = \$ 80,000 + \$ 6,000 + \$ 5,000 + \$ 9,000\\\\= \$ 80,000 + \$ 20,000\\\\= \$ 100,000

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2 years ago
Let RUS be the annual risk free rate in the United States, RUK be the risk free rate in the United Kingdom, F be the futures pri
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Answer:

If RUS > RUK, then E < F ( C )

Explanation:

RUS = annual risk free rate in united states

RUK = annual risk free rate in United kingdom

F = futures price of $/BP  for 1 year

E = spot exchange rate for $/BP

To get a higher the future price

this conditions must be met

The annual risk free rate of the united states must be higher than the annual risk free rate of the united kingdom. if this condition is met then the the British pound will have a forward premium ( F ) > ( E )

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3 years ago
Karl Corporation was organized on January 2, 2018. During 2018, Karl issued 40,000 shares at $24 per share, purchased 6,000 shar
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Answer:

The answer is $1,404,000

Explanation:

Total amount realized from the issuance: 40,000 shares x $24

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=$156,000

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3 years ago
Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods
eimsori [14]

This is the full question:

At the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a cost of $40,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to remain useful for eight years (5,000,000 miles) and to have a residual value of $5,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to be flow 1,200,000 the first year and 1,400,000 the second year.

1) Compute second-year (2017) depreciation expense using the following methods

a. Straight-line

b. Units-of-production

c. Double-declining-balance

2) Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods:

Answer:

Explanation:

1)a) Straight-line

Depreciable base = Cost of the Asset - Residual Value

                              = $40,000,000 - $5,000,000

                              = $35,000,000

Depreciation expense per year = Depreciable base / years of useful life

                                                     = $35,000,000 / 8

                                                     = $4,375,000

The depreciation expense for the second year is = $4,375,000

                                                                                       

b) Units-of-production

Units of Production Rate = Depreciable Base / Units Over Useful Life

                                        = $35,000,000 / 5,000,000 miles

                                        = 7

Depreciation Expense = Units of Production Rate x Actual Units Produced

                                      = 7 x 1,400,000 miles in the second year

                                      = $9,800,000

c. Double-declining-balance

Double-declining balance = 2 x (Asset Cost - Residual Value ) / Useful Life of the Asset

                                           = 2 x ($40,000,000 - $5,000,000) / 8

                                           = $8,750,000

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We simply multiply the previous answer by two = $4,375,000 x 2

                                                                              = $8,750,000

2) b) Units-of-production Accumulated depreciation

First we find the depreciation expense for the first year using the same formula as above

= 7 x 1,200,000

= $8,400,000

Finally we simply add up depreciation expense for the two years

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

= $18,200,000

2) c) Double-declining-balance Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the first result by two = $8,750,000 x 2

                                                                    = $17,500,000

                                       

                           

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