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blsea [12.9K]
3 years ago
14

Juan recently entered into a contract for a cell phone plan. The table shows the monthly cost in dollars, f(x), if Juan sends x

text messages.
What type of function is represented?

linear
quadratic
logarithmic
exponential
Mathematics
1 answer:
Delicious77 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A linear function is represented

Step-by-step explanation:

The table is:

x   f(x)

0   10.00

1    10.02

2   10.04

3   10.06

4   10.08

5   10.10

If we compute the difference between two consecutive function values and we divide it by the difference between their associated x values we get:

(10.02 - 10.00)/(1-0) = 0.02

(10.04 - 10.02)/(2-1) = 0.02

(10.06 - 10.04)/(3-2) = 0.02

(10.08 - 10.06)/(4-3) = 0.02

(10.10 - 10.08)/(5-4) = 0.02

This constant result indicates that a linear function is represented.

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▪ Answer:

9

▪ Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there !

6/2(1 + 2) =

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3 years ago
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A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

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