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Kaylis [27]
3 years ago
14

show that if k is a positive constant, then the area between the x-axis and one arch of the curve y=sin kx is 2/k

Mathematics
1 answer:
Levart [38]3 years ago
8 0
Sin(kx)=0=>x=0,π,...
∫0πsin(kx)dx=−1/kcos(kx)|π0=−1/k(cos(kπ)−cos(k∗0))
if k is odd then,=−1/k(−1−1)=−1/k(−2)=2/k
if k is even then,=−1/k(1−1)=0
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Need help setting this up? Please help me!
Dvinal [7]

Answer:$1500was invested in the account that gained 15% and $15500 was invested in the account that lost 5%.

6 0
3 years ago
A sample of blood pressure measurements is taken for a group of​ adults, and those values​ (mm Hg) are listed below. The values
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Systolic variation coefficient (CVS) = 0.1446 = 14.46%

Diastolic variation coefficient (CVD) =  0.1789 = 17.89%

The variation, with respect to the mean, of the systolic pressure sample is slightly less than the variation of the Diastolic pressures.

Step-by-step explanation:

Systolic Mean (MS) = 127.8

Diastolic Mean (MD) = 73.5

Standard Deviation Systolic (sdS) = 18,486

Standard Deviation Diastolic (sdD) = 13.1508

The coefficient of variation is defined by:

Systolic variation coefficient (CVS) = sdS / MS = 18.486 / 127.8 = 0.1446 = 14.46%

Diastolic variation coefficient (CVD) = sdD / MD = 13.1508 / 73.5 = 0.1789 = 17.89%

Then, it can be concluded that the variation, with respect to the mean, of the systolic pressure sample is slightly less than the variation of the Diastolic pressures.

8 0
3 years ago
I’m still trying to do my work and trying to figure out this
swat32
The slope of a vertical line is undefined, D.

If you were to try to solve use something like the rise over run method, you would end up with a 0 in the denominator. Since dividing by 0 gives you an undefined result, the slope would be undefined.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
210+698-812+1453-1300
marissa [1.9K]

Answer: 249

Step-by-step explanation: 210+698-812+1453-1300

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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