As a result of the demand increasing only slightly compared to the reduction in price, the demand must be <u>inelastic</u>.
<h3>Why is the demand inelastic?</h3><h3 />
The demand is considered to be inelastic if the price elasticity is less than 1.
The price elasticity is:
= (%Change in quantity/% Change in price)
Solving gives:
= 15 / 200 ÷ 0.50 / 3.50
= -0.525
In conclusion, the demand for the shakes is inelastic.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/1899986.
Answer:
d) 0.750
Explanation:
The computation of the correct value for the resulting line's efficiency is shown below:
Efficiency = All task times sum ÷ (Actual number of workstations × cycle time)
where,
All task times sum is 60 minutes
The Actual number of workstations is 8
And, the cycle time is
Since 600 seconds = 10 minutes
And 1 minute = 60 seconds
So, the cycle time would be
= 600 ÷ 60
= 10 minutes
Now placing these values to the above formula
So, the resulting line's efficiency is
= 60 ÷ (8 × 10)
= 60 ÷ 80
= 0.750
Answer: a. $1,000.0m
Explanation:
Even though the company's enterprise value has no growth, the equity investment of the sponsor will rise from $500.0m when purchased to $1,000.0m when the target for the value of the enterprise is sold for $1500.0m.
The debt was $1000m at year 0 while the remaining $500m was for equity. It should be noted that at the fifth year, equity will be $1,000.0m while the debt will be $500m.
Answer: Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Correct: The country’s production possibilities curve will shift out.
The production possibility frontier shows different combination of two goods that are to be produced with the available resources. It also shows the point on the curve which represents the efficient level of quantity to be produced.
So, if there is any improvement in the factors such as technology advancement and level of education will generally results in higher economic growth and increase in the level of output.
Hence, there is an outward shift in the production possibility frontier.
Answer:
A) $450.
Explanation:
The computation of the total deductible amount of the expenses is as follows:
In the case of the deduction with respect to the meal cost and entertainment. Only the half of the expense would be deducted i.e. for the business meeting
As in the question the opera tickets is $900 so the half of $900 i.e. $450 would be allowed as a deduction
Therefore the correct option is A.
