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BartSMP [9]
3 years ago
15

20 POINTS HELPPPPP

Mathematics
2 answers:
Olenka [21]3 years ago
4 0

D. 1 is the answer on edg

kiruha [24]3 years ago
3 0

For this case we have the following expression:

\frac {216 ^ {n-2}} {(\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}} = 216

We multiply both sides by: (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

216 ^ {n-2} = 216 * (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

We divide both sides by 216:

\frac {216 ^ {n-2}} {216} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

To divide powers of the same base, we place the same base and subtract the exponents:

216 ^ {n-2-1} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}\\216 ^ {n-3} = (\frac {1} {36}) ^ {3n}

Rewriting:

(6 ^ 3) ^ {n-3} = (\frac {1} {6 ^ 2}) ^ {3n}\\6 ^ {3n-9} = \frac {1} {6 ^ {6n}}\\6^{ 3n-9} * 6^{ 6n} = 1

To multiply powers of the same base, we place the same base and add the exponents:

6^{ 3n-9 + 6n} = 1\\6^{ 9n-9} = 1

We know that any number raised to zero is 1, a ^ 0 = 1.

So, for equality to be true:

9n-9 = 0\\9n = 9\\n = \frac {9} {9}\\n = 1

Answer:

n = 1

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