Answer:
a) 15 to 35 approximately 95%
(b) 10 to 40 approximately almost all
(c) 20 to 30 approximately 68%
Explanation:
The data have a bell-shaped distribution which means the data is equally distributed on both sides of the mean.
We have the mean at 25 and a standard deviation of 5 which means that the interval is for each of the values of 5 .
The mean would be u and
The first value would be u ±σ = 25 ± 5= 20 and 30 (68 % )
The second value will be u ± 2σ= 25± 10 = 15 and 35 (95%)
The third value will be u ± 3σ= 25 ± 15 = 10 and 40 (99.7 % almost all)
In the figure below the light blue region gives u ±σ on both sides of the mean
, dark blue gives u ± 2σ values on both sides of the mean and grey gives
u ± 3 σ values on both sides of the mean.
It is obvious that 68 % of the data is contained in the u ±σ light blue region, 95 % of the data in the u ± 2σ dark blue including light blue and 99.7 % in the u ± 3σ all colored regions.
The quantity of traveling by train would change by 28%.
Cross-price elasticity measures how the quantity demanded of a good is affected by changes in the price of another good.
Cross price elasticity = percentage change in the quantity demanded of good A / percentage change in the price of good B.
0.7 = percentage change in the quantity of traveling by train / 40%
Percentage change in the quantity of traveling by train = 40 x 0.7 = 28%
To learn more about cross price elasticity, please check: brainly.com/question/26035503
Answer:
The fixed overhead production-volume variance is $9,000 U
Explanation:
In this question, we are tasked with calculating the fixed overhead production-volume variance.
We start by calculating the fixed overhead applied to production.
mathematically that is equal to : 54,000 * 0.03 * 50 = 81,000
The budgeted fixed overhead = 90,000
Mathematically,
Fixed overhead production-volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - fixed overhead applied to production = 90,000 - 81,000 = $9,000 U
B. Finance a car. If they need to use one yearly, then it would be best to finance one and pay it off over time
Answer:
$8,500 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the fixed overhead spending variance is shown below
= Budgeted fixed overhead - actual fixed overhead
= $184,800 - $176,300
= $8,500 favorable
We simply deduct the actual fixed overhead from the budgeted one so that the fixed overhead spending variance could come
