Answer:
A) 14.72 hours
B) An additional worker should be hired since the lost work time is 14.72 hours
Explanation:
Number of machines on manufacturing line = 8
percentage of machine been down = 23%
number of workers capable of running and repairing machines = 2
machine productivity ( per machine ) = 18 units/hour
overhead cost / machine = $713
hourly rate paid per worker = $15
Total number of work hours = 8 hour
A) calculate Total amount of lost worktime
= number of machines * Total number of work hours * 23%
= 8 * 8 * 23% = 14.72 hours
B) An additional worker should be hired since the lost work time is 14.72 hours
Answer:
a. Allowance for doubtful accounts = Unadjusted balance + Adjusted balance
= $10,500 + $110,000
= $120,500
b. i)The adjusted balance of accounts receivable shall be $2,150,000(adjusted debit balance)
ii) Adjusted balance = Bad debt expense - Unadjusted balance
= $120,500 - $10,500
= $110,000 (Adjusted credit balance)
iii) Adjusted bad debt expense = Unadjusted balance of allowance for doubtful accounts + Adjusted balance allowance for doubtful accounts
= $10,500 + $110,000
= $120,500 (Adjusted debit balance)
c. Net realizable value = Gross accounts receivable - Allowance for doubtful accounts
= $2,150,000 - $110,000
= $2,040,000
The tenants go to the meeting
Answer:
The IRR is 5%. Rate of return would be 12.5% assuming a discount rate of 4%
Explanation:
The answer depends entirely on the discount rate. The question covers a 30 period timeframe and in each period, the pay off is $13 million. This is a simple time value of money concept in which to calculate the present value, you will simply calculate the present value of each of the cash flows. The formula is 13Mn/[(1+r)^n] where n is the year from 1 to 30, r is the discount rate.
The question requires us to calculate the return that is the variable 'r'. For this you need to have the present value today so that you can then use the equation to solve for 'r'. However, the only information we have is the time period and the cash flow. We are given $200mn as the initial outlay. So, we can at least use this to calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) which is simply the rate of return (or the value of 'r') at which the present value of each of the 13 Mn to be received over the next 30 years is equal to the initial outlay (i.e 200mn). In short, IRR is the rate of return at which the net present value (NPV) is equal to zero. In our example, and using the formula for each of the cash flow from years 1 to 30, the IRR is computated at 5%. So if the discount rate that the company uses is less than 5%, the company would be better of with Joe accepting the offer because any discount rate below 5% would result in the present value of the cash flows to be in excess of $200Mn.
Lets take an example and assume that the discount rate is 4%, using the formula from year 1 to 30 and summing the values would give us a present value of $225 Mn. So the rate lf return in this case would be (225-200)/200 x 100 = 12.5%.
<span>D, E, F#, G, A, B, C#, D (i think)</span>