Answer:
28
Step-by-step explanation:
42 ÷ 1 × 1/2
= 28
Answer:
It's 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
47 I believe
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given

We can write it as

Express x in terms of y

Replace y be x to get the inverse

To prove, it is inverse of f(x). 

So, they are inverse of each other.
Answer:
46
Step-by-step explanation:
p=40+0.15(40)
=40+6