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e-lub [12.9K]
3 years ago
6

Suppose the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies. If U.S. firms have domestic content below 100%, the harm to domes

tic firms is _________ than the harm if U.S. producers had domestic content of 100%.greaterless
Business
1 answer:
inn [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: If U.S. firms have domestic content below 100%, the harm to domestic firms is less than the harm if U.S. producers had domestic content of 100%.

Explanation:

This strength of the dollar, which is reflected in exchange rates, has negative and positive implications at the same time for any economy.

What benefits one sector damages the purchasing power of another.

If it is good for those who receive remittances, it is bad for those who want to travel or do business abroad.

Businesses and governments also have to deal with a phenomenon that affects all aspects of the economy.

Importing oil or gas, repaying debt or contracting services abroad can cost more or less depending on exchange rates.

In general terms, that a currency depreciates against the dollar if it has a very intensive international trade with the United States, as is the case in Mexico, causes its economy to be more competitive and drives growth.

This is because American consumers can compare cheaper products made in Mexico.

So in terms of growth, this is a positive effect of the depreciation of a currency and the strength of the dollar.

The increases in interest rates made by the Federal Reserve, the body in charge of dictating the course of monetary policy in the United States, have led to a progressive general strengthening of the dollar against all currencies.

When the US central bank cuts interest rates, it encourages banks to lend more and put more money in the hands of citizens and businesses. And the opposite happens when, as now, the rates rise. Banks lend less and the dollar appreciates.

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The correct answer is option (c) Emotional

Explanation:

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The most preferred technique for determining how much life insurance coverage is needed for an individual is:
beks73 [17]

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3 years ago
An issuer has filed a registration statement in the state proposing to offer 500,000 shares in a combined primary and secondary
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

b. 300,000 shares being sold is an issuer transaction and the 200,000 shares being sold is a non-issuer transaction.

Explanation:

A non-issuer transaction is a transaction that does not directly benefit an issuer or it was not directly executed to benefit an issuer.

According to the Uniform State Law, an entity involved in the sales of certificates of interest, leases, mining titles among others is officially exempted from being labelled as an issuer. Hence, the entity (officers of the firm) in the question are non-issuer brokers.

Specifically, when the sales of stock are carried out by someone or an individual who is not a registered stockbroker, that individual officially becomes what is called 'a non-issuer broker-dealer'. The implication is that such a transaction is to be exempted from the registration requirements of the Security Exchange Commission.

In this question, since the issuer newly issued 300,000 shares while the remaining 200,000 in the proposed combination was offered by Officers of the firm - non-issuer broker-dealers. The Law states that it must be separated to show that 300,000 shares are sold in an issuer transaction (Primary) directly involving an official issuer while 200,000 shares are sold in a non-issuer transaction (Secondary).

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