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svetoff [14.1K]
3 years ago
10

(-4)* samething = 320​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alexeev081 [22]3 years ago
6 0
Something = 320/-4=-80
Anvisha [2.4K]3 years ago
4 0
(-4) times something = 320

Let’s say something is x,

-4 times x equals 320
-4x = 320
x = 320/-4
x= -8
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A system has two failure modes. One failure mode, due to external conditions, has a constant failure rate of 0.07 failures per y
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

0.9177

Step-by-step explanation:

let us first represent the two failure modes with respect to time as follows

R₁(t) for external conditions

R₂(t) for wear out condition ( Wiebull )

Now,

R1(t) = e^{-nt} .....1

where t = time in years = 1,

n = failure rate constant = 0.07

Also,

R2(t)=e^{-(\frac{t}{Q} )^{B} }......2

where t = time in years = 1

where Q = characteristic life in years = 10

and B = the shape parameter = 1.8

Substituting values into equation 1

R1(t) = e^{-(0.07)(1)} \\\\R1(t) = e^{-0.07}

Substituting values into equation 2

R2(t)=e^{-(\frac{1}{10} )^{1.8} }\\\\R2(t)=e^{-(0.1)}^{1.8} }\\\\R2(t)=e^{-0.0158}

let the <em>system reliability </em>for a design life of one year be Rs(t)

hence,

Rs(t) = R1(t) * R2(t)

t = 1

Rs(1) = [e^{-0.07} ] * [e^{-0.0158} ] = 0.917713

Rs(1) = 0.9177 (approx to four decimal places)

5 0
3 years ago
Is 5/6 closest to 0,1/2, and 1
Ne4ueva [31]
I think the answer is 1.First, find the least common denominator, which is 6. Then, multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number to get 6 as the denominator. \frac{0}{1} is multiplied by 6 to get \frac{0}{6}. \frac{1}{2} is multiplied by 3 to get \frac{3}{6}. \frac{1}{1} is multiplied by 6 to get \frac{6}{6}. Since \frac{5}{6} is closest to \frac{6}{6}, 1 is the answer. Hope this helps!
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Given that,

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Based on the above information, the calculation is as follows:

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Learn more: brainly.com/question/1301963?referrer=searchResults

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