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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
15

Bed & Bath, a retailing company, has two departments—Hardware and Linens. The company’s most recent monthly contribution for

mat income statement follows: Department Total Hardware Linens Sales $ 4,190,000 $ 3,180,000 $ 1,010,000 Variable expenses 1,242,000 841,000 401,000 Contribution margin 2,948,000 2,339,000 609,000 Fixed expenses 2,270,000 1,420,000 850,000 Net operating income (loss) $ 678,000 $ 919,000 $ (241,000 ) A study indicates that $379,000 of the fixed expenses being charged to Linens are sunk costs or allocated costs that will continue even if the Linens Department is dropped. In addition, the elimination of the Linens Department will result in a 18% decrease in the sales of the Hardware Department. Required: What is the financial advantage (disadvantage) of discontinuing the Linens Department?
Business
1 answer:
-Dominant- [34]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The financial advantage of discontinuing the Linens Department is $359,980

Explanation:

If Linens Department is discontinued, there is only Hardware Department left. The new sales, costs and operating income will be:

Sales = 3,180,000 x (1 -18%) = $2,607,600 ( 18% drop in sales of Hardware given Linens discontinuity)

Variable cost = 2,607,600 x ( 841,000 / 3,180,000) = $689,620.

Fixed cost = Fixed cost originally allocated to Hardware + Fixed cost further allocated to Hardware due to Linen's discontinuity = 1,420,000 + 379,000 = $1,799,000.

Operating income = 2,607,600 - 689,620 - 1,799,000 = $118,980.

=> Difference between discontinuity of Linen Department and continuity of Linen Department = 118,980 - (-241,000) = $359,980.

You might be interested in
Journalize the following business transactions in general journal form. Identify each transaction by number. You may omit explan
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

General Ledger

1.

Cash $40,000 (debit)

Capital $40,000 (credit)

<em>Owners Invest In the business</em>

2.

Supplies $500 (debit)

Accounts Payable $500 (credit)

<em>Supplies purchased on credit</em>

3

Equipment $25,000 (debit)

Cash $3,500 (credit)

Note Payable $21,500 (credit)

<em>Equipment purchased partly in cash and in credit</em>

4.

Accounts Receivable $4,000 (debit)

Commission Earned $4,000 (credit)

<em>Commission earned not yet received</em>

5.

Rent Expense $700 (debit)

Cash $700 (credit)

<em>Rent paid in cash</em>

6.

Accounts Payable $250 (debit)

Cash $250 (credit)

<em>Settlement of Accounts Payable</em>

7.

Advertising Expense $800 (debit)

Accounts payable $800 (credit)

<em>Advertising Bill due</em>

8.

Salaries Expenses $2,500 (debit)

Cash $2,500 (credit)

<em>Salaries paid</em>

9.

Dividends $1,200 (debit)

Cash $1,200 (credit)

<em>Dividends paid to owners of the company</em>

10.

Cash $2,000 (debit)

Accounts Receivable $2,000 (credit)

<em>Accounts Receivables settle their debts</em>

Explanation:

See the journal entries prepared including narrations (for your learning and understanding)

3 0
3 years ago
Dan plans to fund his individual retirement account (IRA) with the maximum contribution of $2,000 at the end of each year for th
slamgirl [31]

Answer:

$31,874

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate how much Dan would have at the end of the 10th year if he contributes a maximum of $2000 at the end of each year for the next 10 years and earns 10% on his contribution.

This kind of problem can be solved using the annuity formula I.e the annuity formula can be used to calculate the accumulated value at the end of the 10th year.

Annuity refers to a series of payment that is made at equal time intervals

Mathematically, the future value of an annuity =

Annuity payment * [(1 + r)^n - 1]/r

Where r is the discount rate and n is the number of years.

In this question, we have identified the following to be used in the formula.

Annuity payment = the maximum payable contribution per year = $2000

Number of years = 10 years

The discount rate = 10% = 10/100 = 0.1

We plug these values in the formula:

Future accumulated value = 2,000 * [(1+0.1)^10 - 1]/0.1 = 2,000 * [(1+0.1)^10 - 1)]/0.1

= 2,000 * (2.5937-1)/0.1 = 2,000 * (1.5937)/0.1 = 2,000 * 15.937 = $31,874

The accumulated value of the annuity payment is $31,874

8 0
3 years ago
Pitt Enterprises manufactures jeans. All materials are introduced at the beginning of the manufacturing process in the Cutting D
blagie [28]

Answer:

e. 225,000 materials; 195,000 conversion.

Explanation:

direct materials

beginning WIP inventory = 0%*50000

                                          = 0

started and completed = 150000*100%

                                       = 150000

ending WIP inventory = 75000*100%

                                    = 75000

equivalent units = 0 + 150000 + 75000

                           = 225000

conversion

beginning WIP inventory = 50000*60%

                                          = 30000

started and completed = 150000*100%

                                       = 150000

ending WIP inventory = 75000*20%

                                    = 15000

equivalent units = 30000 + 150000 + 15000

                           = 195000

Therefore, The equivalent units for direct materials and conversion respectively for May is $225,000 and $195,000 respectively.

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an example of investment (I) Group of answer choices a. new plants and equipment purchased by a firm.
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

A. new plants and equipment purchased by a firm.

Explanation:

Option B is wrong because anything purchased by households cannot be the investment for a firm.

Option C is wrong because inventory is a current asset. Current assets cannot be an investment.

Option A is correct because if a company purchases any non-current assets like plant and equipment, its an investment for them.

3 0
4 years ago
A deli is offering a special for its sandwiches. a customer will receive three free sandwiches for every five sandwiches purchas
ArbitrLikvidat [17]
We see that for every 8 sandwiches that the customer needs, he will pay for 5. Lets see how many groups of 8 sandwiches the order of 675 sandwiches contains. If we do Euclidean Division we see that there are 84 groups of 8 and that three sandwiches are the remainder. 675/8=84.375; Hence we have 84 groups and 0.375*8=3 sandwiches that remain. Thus, the customer would play for 84*5= 420 sandwiches if he had ordered 84 groups of 8 (namely 672 sandwiches). Since he needs another 3 sandwiches and there is no promotional offer for those, he will have to pay in total for 423 sandwiches. It is important to not divide the total number by 8 and then multiply it by 5; the customer gets the free sandwiches only if he completes an offer of 5 sandwiches, thus we have to group the sandwiches in octads and deal with the remainder separately.
4 0
3 years ago
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