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mina [271]
2 years ago
15

Paula used these steps to solve an equation:

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lina20 [59]2 years ago
6 0
D, between steps 4 and 5
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A rectangular balcony has an area of 32 square feet. its perimeter is 24 feet. what are the dimensions of the balcony?
Paul [167]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

8 ft by 4 ft

8ft x 4ft = 32 ft

8ft + 8 ft = 16 ft  4 ft + 4 ft = 8 ft

16ft + 8 ft = 24 ft

5 0
3 years ago
Find each sum<br><br> 1. 56 + (-56)<br><br> 2. -240 + 370<br><br> 3. -5.7 + (-4.2)
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

1. 0

2. 130

3. − 9.9

sorry if am wrong

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Hi! can anyone help me? Question is down in the picture below! 10 points! Thank you!
Bad White [126]

Answer:2

Step-by-step explanation:

I’m not exactly sure bc I’ve never heard a problem like that before but I believe that’s correct.

5 0
2 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
-4 (2y + 4)= 48 help plz
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

y=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

-8y-16=48

    +16+16

-8y=64

y=-8

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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