1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
8

A bull’s-eye with a 4-inch diameter covers 20 percent of a circular target. What is the area, in square inches, of the target?

Mathematics
2 answers:
alexandr402 [8]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Area of target = 62.8 inch²

Step-by-step explanation:

A bull’s-eye with a 4-inch diameter covers 20 percent of a circular target.

Diameter of bull's eye = 4 inch

\texttt{Area of bull's eye = }\frac{\pi\times 4^2}{4}=12.56inch^2

Given that  bull’s-eye covers 20% of circular target.

\texttt{Area of bull's eye = }\frac{20}{100}\times \texttt{Area of target}\\\\\texttt{Area of target}\times 0.2=12.56\\\\\texttt{Area of target}=\frac{12.56}{0.2}=62.8inch^2

Area of target = 62.8 inch²

kipiarov [429]3 years ago
3 0

Area of a circle is found using the formula: Area = π * r^2

Using 3.14 for π

Area of the bull'e eye = π * 2^2 = 4π = 4 * 3.14 = 12.56 square inches.

This is 20% of the entire target.

To find the area of the entire target, divide the area of the bull's eye by the percentage:

Area = 12.56 / 0.20 = 62.8 square inches.

Round the answer as needed.

You might be interested in
A model ocean liner is 12 inches long. If it is built to a scale of 1 in:300 ft., how long is the real ocean liner?
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

3600 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

because each inch in the model is 300 feet in real life, you do 12 times 300 ft and you get 3600 ft

7 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to the inequality? -4/5x is greater than or equal to 1/10
Semenov [28]
-4x/5≥1/10
-8x≥1
x≤-1/8
x∈(-∞;-1/8]
6 0
3 years ago
1. Among 806 people asked which is there favorite seat on a plane, 492 chose the window seat, 8 chose the middle seat, and 306 c
prisoha [69]

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Among 806 people asked which is there favorite seat on a plane, 492 chose the window seat, 8 chose the middle seat, and 306 chose the aisle seat, then

P(\text{Window seat})=\dfrac{492}{806}=\dfrac{246}{403}\\ \\P(\text{Middle seat})=\dfrac{8}{806}=\dfrac{4}{403}\\ \\P(\text{Aisle seat})=\dfrac{306}{806}=\dfrac{153}{403}

a) One randomly selected person preferes aisle seat with probability

\dfrac{153}{403}

b) Two randomly selected people both prefer aisle seat (with replacement) is

\dfrac{306}{806}\cdot \dfrac{306}{806}=\dfrac{153}{403}\cdot \dfrac{153}{403}=\dfrac{23,409}{162,409}

c) Two randomly selected people both prefer aisle seat (without replacement) is

\dfrac{306}{806}\cdot \dfrac{305}{805}=\dfrac{153}{403}\cdot \dfrac{61}{161}=\dfrac{9,333}{64,883}

8 0
3 years ago
A certain genetic condition affects 8% of the population in a city of 10,000. Suppose there is a test for the condition that has
enot [183]

Solution:

Population in the city= 10,000

As genetic condition affects 8% of the population.

8 % of 10,000

=\frac{8}{100}\times 10,000=800

As, it is also given that, there is an error rate of 1% for condition (i.e., 1% false negatives and 1% false positives).

So, 1% false negatives means out of 800 tested who are found affected , means there are chances that 1% who was found affected are not affected at all.

So, 1% of 800 =\frac{1}{100}\times 800=8

Also,  1% false positives means out of 10,000 tested,[10,000-800= 9200] who are found not affected , means there are chances that 1% who was found not affected can be affected also.

So, 1% of 9200 =\frac{1}{100}\times 9200=92

1. Has condition Does not have condition totals  = 800

2. Test positive =92

3. Test negative =8

4. Total =800 +92 +8=900

5. Probability (as a percentage) that a person has the condition if he or she tests positive= As 8% are found positive among 10,000 means 9200 are not found affected.But there are chances that out of 9200 , 1% may be affected

=\frac{\text{1 percent of 9200}}{9200}\\\\ \frac{\frac{1}{100}\times 9200}{9200}=\frac{92}{9200}\\\\ =0.01

that is Probability equal to 0.01 or 1%.

7 0
3 years ago
Original price: $32; Markup: 12.5%; Retail price
Roman55 [17]

12.5% = .125

32 x .125 = 4

32 + 4 = $36

4 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • 0.1(x+250)=5000 distributive property
    6·1 answer
  • 3.2 divided by 8 what do I get?
    5·1 answer
  • 1.5[3(14.5+7)-3]-7.4
    13·1 answer
  • La catul numerelor 27 si 3 adauga o patrime din 32
    5·1 answer
  • Represent this statement as an equation: Six more than twice a number is 20.
    10·1 answer
  • What kind of number is the square root of 48​
    6·2 answers
  • 344 students, 326 students present what percent was present
    7·1 answer
  • What is another way to write -3 x (4+7)
    15·1 answer
  • Two groups of tourist fly to Japan. It takes the first group 4 hours less than the second to fly
    10·1 answer
  • Use the diagram to answer each part of the question. The image is not drawn to scale.
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!