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IceJOKER [234]
3 years ago
14

At December 31, Meyer Company had 500,000 shares of common stock issued and outstanding, 400,000 of which had been issued and ou

tstanding throughout the year and 100,000 of which were issued on October 1. Net income for the year ended December 31 was $510,000. What should be Meyer's earnings per common share, rounded to the nearest penny?
Business
1 answer:
kicyunya [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$1.2

Explanation:

The computation of earning per common share is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income) ÷ (Number of shares)

where,

Net income = $510,000

And, the number of shares = $400,000 + $100,000 × (3 months ÷ 12 months)

= $400,000 + $25,000

= $425,000

The 3 months is calculated from October 1 to December 31

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $510,000 ÷ $425,000

= $1.2

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3 years ago
American​ Exploration, Inc., a natural gas​ producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00  %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

a)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)

WACC 9.00000%

c)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 7.80000%

d)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

<em>Ke 0.16</em>

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 9.00000%

3 0
3 years ago
EB10.
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

The question is incomplete; the complete question is given below.

Cost Pool Cost Driver Estimated Cost Driver Estimated Overheads

Material     Material requisition     250,000.00         $105,000.00

Machining Machine hours         360, 750         $432,900.00

Inspection Number of inspections  25,000.00          $15,750.00

Answer:

Overhead rate per activity :Material- $0.42,  Machining-$1.2,  Inspection-$6.3

Explanation:

Activity-based costing aims to achieve better product pricing than traditional absorption cost by charging overheads to the product cost more accurately.

Activity-based costing uses cost drivers to charge overheads to cost unit as against the use of of volume-based bases like labour hours, machine hours. Overheads are first traced to the activities responsible for them- the sum is called cost pool. Cost pools are then absorbed into the cost unit using cost driver rates

Cost pool- the sum of the total overheads associated with an activity. E.g <em>$105,000 material requisition overheads.</em>

Cost driver: A factor that causes a change in the cost pool. E.g

<em>250,000 material requisitions.</em>

Cost per driver: A specific overhead absorption rate computed for an activity. It is calculated as follows:

Cost per driver = Estimated activity overheads/Total number of cost drivers

The predetermined overhead rate for each activity is calculated as follow;

Material requisition= $105,000/250,000 requisitions= $0.42 per requisition

Machining = $432,900/360,750 machine hours = $1.2 per machine hour

Inspection= $15,750/ 25,000 inspections = $6.3 per inspection

8 0
3 years ago
Mar. 17 Received $275 from Shawn McNeely and wrote off the remainder owed of $1,000 as uncollectible. July 29 Reinstated the acc
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Mar 17.

6150 Bad Debt Expense  $1.000 - Debit

1010 CASH Operating Account $275 - Debit

                 1290 A/REC Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $1.000 - Credit

                 1220 A/REC Trade Notes Receivable $275 - Credit

Jul 29.

1290 A/REC Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $1.000 - Debit

1010 CASH Operating Account $1.000 - Debit

                        6150 Bad Debt Expense  $1.000 - Credit

                        1220 A/REC Trade Notes Receivable $1.000 - Credit

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Anthony Finley wishes to become a millionaire. His money market fund has a balance of $287,270 and has a guaranteed interest rat
mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

15 years

Explanation:

The target accumulated future amount is the future value of the initial investment(present value), hence, using the future value formula provided below we can determine the investment time horizon in years required to accumulate the target amount:

FV=PV*(1+r)^n

FV=$1,200,000

PV=$287,270

r=10%

n=investment period in years=unknown

$1,200,000=$287,270*(1+10%)^n

$1,200,000/$287,270=(1+10%)^n

$1,200,000/$287,270=(1.10)^n

take log of both sides

ln($1,200,000/$287,270)=n ln(1.10)

n=ln($1,200,000/$287,270)/ln(1.10)

n=15.00years

4 0
2 years ago
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