Answer:
C. The actual variable overhead costs were lower than the budgeted costs.
Explanation:
Variable Overhead Cost variance =Budgeted cost - Actual Cost
where this value is positive, this is favorable, where this is negative it is unfavorable.
Actual cost = Actual hours X Actual rate per hour
Budgeted Cost = Budgeted hours for actual level of production X Budgeted rate per hour
Even if actual hours are lower than budgeted it will not lead to favorable overhead as actual rate per hour might be less.
Total variable overhead will only be favorable when net actual variable overhead cost is less than budgeted variable overhead costs.
C. The actual variable overhead costs were lower than the budgeted costs.
Answer:
negative
Explanation:
Complementary goods have a negative cross-price elasticity because the increase in price of one tends to a weak or fall in consumer demand of the second. For instance, a hike in petrol will lead to a decrease in consumer demand for cars thereby giving rise to alternatives to these goods (most likely, there would be a surge in subway or rail patronage)
This statement is false.
When an entrepreneur buys into a franchise they will always have franchise fees, even after their intial investment is paid for. The additional fees that they always pay include charges for things like marketing and royalties. These fees are normally based on a percentage of a business’s sales.
Answer:
The CPA rebuts the allegations
Explanation:
The Securities Act of 1933 requires that investors receive financial and other significant information regarding any and all securities being sold publicly and prohibits deceit, misrepresentations, and other fraud in the sale of securities. Therefore, since there was material misstatement or omission in the financial statements, the only chance the CPA has is if they rebut the allegations. Meaning that they provide actual evidence, such as physical statements or witnesses that contradict or nullify the evidence that is being presented against them regarding the material misstatement or omission
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
We have to use MM proposition that cost of equity will change itself in such a manner so that it can take care of its debt.
Cost of equity:
= WACC of all equity firm + (WACC of all equity - Cost of debt ) × (Debt -to-equity ratio)
At the beginning, when there was no debt,
WACC = cost of equity = 10%
Levered cost of equity:
= 10% + ( 10% - 6%) × 0.2
= 10.8%
Therefore, Taggart's levered cost of equity would be closest to 11%.
