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lyudmila [28]
3 years ago
9

A rental car company charges a one time fee of $50 plus

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nady [450]3 years ago
6 0
They can be the same price at 40 miles because 50+1(40) is 90 and 10+2(40) is 90
omeli [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: it would take 40 miles before the cost is the same for both companies.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let m represent the number of miles travelled at either company A or company B

Let t represent the total charge for m miles when either company A or company B is used.

Company A charges a one time fee of $50 plus $1 per mile. This means that the total amount charged for m miles at company A would be

t = x + 50

Company B charges a one

time fee of $10 plus $2 per mile. This means that the total amount charged for m miles at company B would be

t = 2x + 10

To determine the number of miles before the cost for both companies becomes the same, we would equate t to t. It becomes

x + 50 = 2x + 10

2x - x = 50 - 10

x = 40

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