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natka813 [3]
4 years ago
7

Target profit is $100,000; fixed overhead costs are $120,000 and fixed selling and administrative costs are $50,000. If total va

riable cost is $675,000, the markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method is %. Round your answer to the nearest whole percent
Business
1 answer:
vlada-n [284]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

40%

Explanation:

The markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method can be obtained by dividing the addition of the target profit and total fixed cost by the total variable cost as follows:

Total fixed cost = Fixed overhead costs + Fixed selling and administrative costs = $120,000 + $50,00 = $170,000

The markup percentage to the variable cost = (Target profit + Total fixed cost) / Total variable cost = ($100,000 + $170,000) / $675,000 = $270,000 / $675,000 = 0.40, or 40%.

Therefore, the markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method is 40%.

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For 2021, Rahal's Auto Parts estimates bad debt expense at 1% of credit sales. The company reported accounts receivable and an a
ziro4ka [17]

Answer:

$3,860

Explanation:

The balance in the account Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is expected to be the projected amount in receivables of the company that will not be converting to cash.

Therefore to calculate final balance of allowance for doubtful balance

Beginning balance                                                                 2700

Bad debt expense (410000*1%)                                            4100

Less: Written off                                                                   -2940

Ending balance                                                                    3860

So answer is $3,860

4 0
3 years ago
Kelly Company issued $100,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds at 102 to a single investor. Each of the $1,000 bonds was convertible into 10
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

The amount credited to common stock upon conversion of the bonds is $101000

Explanation:

When the bond was issued there would been a debit of $102000($100000*$102/$100) to cash account and credit of $102000 to liabilities split into $100000 bonds payable and $2000 bond premium.

However, on conversion to common stock with premium of $1000 outstanding in the books,the amount to be credited into common stock account is the issue value less outstanding premium.

The amount credited to common stock=$102000-$1000=$101000

This can be shown with entries below:

Dr Bond payable     $100000

Dr Bond premium    $1000

Cr Common stock                      $101000

3 0
3 years ago
You are provided with the following information for Sandhill Co., effective as of its April 30, 2022, year-end.
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

                            SANDHILL CO.

                        Income Statement

              For the Year Ended April 30, 2022

<u>Revenues</u>

Sales revenue                                      $6,200

<u>Expenses</u>

Cost of Goods Sold                $1,000

Depreciation expense            $315

Income tax expense               $175

Insurance expense                 $360

Interest expense                     $460

Salaries & Wages expenses  <u>$850</u>

Total Expenses                                     <u>$3,160</u>

Net Income                                           <u>$3,040</u>

<u />

                              SANDHILL CO.

                   Retained Earnings Statement

               For the Year Ended April 30, 2022

Retained Earnings, May 1, 2021              $1,700

Add: Net Income                                      <u>$3,040</u>  $4,740

Less: Dividends                                                       <u>$310    </u>

Retained Earnings, April 30, 2022                       <u>$4,430</u>

7 0
3 years ago
PharmY, Inc., is a U.S. GAAP reporter that is in the pharmaceutical industry. In the current year, PharmY incurred expenditures
Whitepunk [10]

Answer with Explanation:

Tangible assets fall under the scope of International Accounting Standard IAS-36 Property, Plant and Equipment which says that assets that qualify following conditions, must be capitalized:

  • Assets that have life expectancy of more than a year.
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Now here, the life expectancy of laboratory equipment is unknown and also that we don't know if the asset can be resold in the market or not. This means, if the asset has life expectancy is no more than a year and that the future benefits will flow towards the company then it must be capitalized otherwise it must be expensed out as per the guidelines of International Accounting Standard IAS-38 Intangible Assets, which says that the research cost prior to the development expenditure must be expensed out.

The other two costs are revenue expenditure and must be expensed out under the name research and development cost as per the guidelines of IAS-38.

4 0
3 years ago
Amortization is:Select one:A. The process of allocating to expense the cost of a plant asset to the accounting periods benefitin
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

The correct answer is option B.

Explanation:

Amortization is a technique used in accounting. It involves the process of spreading payment over multiple periods. In accounting, amortization refers to the allocation of the cost of intangible assets over its lifetime.

For instance, amortization of a loan means spreading the interest and principal of the loan over its lifetime. It means fixed monthly payments of interest and principal.  

4 0
3 years ago
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