Why were women paid only about half as much as men for the same jobs in the early 1900’s

1 answer:

6 0

Answer: In the early 20th century, most women in the United States did not work outside the home, and those who did were primarily young and unmarried. In that era, just 20 percent of all women were “gainful workers,” as the Census Bureau then categorized labor force participation outside the home, and only 5 percent of those married were categorized as such. Of course, these statistics somewhat understate the contributions of married women to the economy beyond housekeeping and child rearing, since women’s work in the home often included work in family businesses and the home production of goods, such as agricultural products, for sale. Also, the aggregate statistics obscure the differential experience of women by race. African American women were about twice as likely to participate in the labor force as were white women at the time, largely because they were more likely to remain in the labor force after marriage.

You might be interested in

Why is Locke's natural rights so important and why should government protect natural rights?

MissTica

Answer:

The purpose of government, Locke wrote, is to secure and protect the God-given inalienable natural rights of the people. For their part, the people must obey the laws of their rulers. ... Jefferson adopted John Locke's theory of natural rights to provide a reason for revolution.

5 0

3 years ago

7. Leader often shares power with other parts of government

Citrus2011 [14]

Here, does this help? In modern times, monarchs usually share power with other parts of government. Often they are also subject to the country's constitution. A dictatorship is a form of government where one leader has absolute control over citizens' lives. I hope this helps you understand the statement a little better :)

6 0

3 years ago

Which two European countries dominated south america

Nadya [2.5K]

I believe it could be Spain and France but do you have any choices?

3 0

3 years ago

What was the one effect of the french and indian war on great britians american colonies

Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

The war provided Great Britain gains of territory in North America, but disputes over frontier policy and paying the war's expenses led to colonial discontent, and ultimately to the American Revolution.

Explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why was it Western Europe rather than China, the Muslim world, or some other non-Western society who effected the globalization

WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

A Military strength and Imperialism

B Religion, Unity, Organization

Explanation:

A The sixteenth century saw the rise of European imperialism, protagonized by the Spanish who had just reconquered the Iberian peninsula on the Arabs. The Muslim world was in retreat, China was isolated.

The military (tecnological) supremacy of the Spanish in the Americas was overwhelming and the Indians, both in North & South America, were easily conquered.

B Take the negative example of the Aztecs in México: their religion hampered their military organization. They were united as a tribe but other tribes, like the Tlaxcaltecas, were ready to help Cortés a hand in destroying the Aztec empire.

Now a positive example, i.e. resisting or coping with the arrival of Westerners, is more difficult to find. In any case they are more likely to be found in Asia, where powerful and united nations (socially and religiously) such as China or Japan proved to be more resistent than their fellow-countries in Africa or the Americas.

5 0

3 years ago