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sashaice [31]
3 years ago
9

Seacrest Company has 15,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2% stock, $50 par and 50,000 shares of $5 par common stock. The follo

wing amounts were distributed as dividends:
Year 1 $30,000
Year 2 12,000
Year 3 45,000

Required:
Determine the dividends per share for preferred and common stock for each year.
Business
1 answer:
zloy xaker [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Cumulative Preferred Stock must always pay out Dividends and when they cannot, the amount unpaid will be accrued for payment to another year when it can be paid.

When Dividends are declared, Preference Shareholders are paid first and then common shareholders follow.

Year 1

Preference Shares = Number of shares * Par value * %

= 15,000 * 50 * 2%

= $15,000

Common Shareholders will get the rest;

= 30,000 - 15,000

= $15,000

Year 2.

Preference Shareholders are still due $15,000 however only $12,000 is available. They will take all of it and be owed $3,000.

Preference Shares, Year 2 = $12,000

Common Shareholders get nothing.

Year 3.

Preference Shareholders are owed $15,000 for the year. They are also owed $3,000 from the previous year.

Preference Shares = 15,000 + 3,000

= $18,000

Common Shareholders will get the remainder;

= 45,000 - 18,000

= $27,000

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3 years ago
Cool Compartments Inc. has offered to sell 20,000 ice-makers to Refrigerator Company for $28 per unit. If Refrigerator accepts C
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

$680,000 vs $440,000

Explanation:

Total Costs to Make :

Manufacturing Costs ($34 x 20,000)                                     $680,000

Total                                                                                          $680,000

Total Cost to Buy :

Purchase Price ($28 x 20,000)                                               $560,000

<u>Less Savings :</u>

Fixed overhead ($6 x 20,000)                                                ($120,000)

Total Cost                                                                                  $440,000

7 0
3 years ago
Erie Company manufactures a mobile fitness device called the Jogging Mate. The company uses standards to control its costs. The
Tom [10]

a. Standard labor-hours is 7920 hours.

b. Standard labor cost allowed is $42,768.

c. The labor spending variance is $1588(U).

d.  The labor rate variance is $1706 and the labor efficiency variance $3294(U).

e.  The variable overhead rate is $5971(U) and efficiency variances for the month $5580(U).

<u>Explanation:</u>

a)Standars hours(SH) allowed to make 19800 jogging mates

=SH per unit \times 19800

=(24/60)*19800

=7920 hours

24/60 has been taken to convert minutes into hours.  

b)Standard Labor Cost (SC) of 19800 jogging mates

=19800 \times SC per unit=19800 \times $2.16\\=$42,768

=$42,768

c)Labour Spending Variance

=Standard Cost - Actual Cost(AC)=$42,768 - $44,356=$1588(U)

=$1588(U)

d)Labor Rate Variance  

=(SR per hour-AR per hour)\timesAH=(5.4-5.2)*8530=$1706(F)

=$1706

Actual Hours(AH) * Actual Rate per hour(AR)= Actual Cost(AC)

8530 \times AR = $44,356

AR = \frac{44356}{8530}\\ \\AR = 5.2

Labor Efficiency Variance

=(SH-AH) \times SR\\=(7920-8530)*$5.4=$3294(U)

=$3294(U)

e) Variable overhead rate variance = Actual hours worked  (Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate)

= 8530  (4.5 - 5.20)

= $5971(U)

Actual overhead rate = $44,356 / 8530 = 5.20

Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard overhead rate   (Standard hours - Actual hours)

= 4.50  (7290 - 8530)

= $5580(U).

8 0
3 years ago
Ramirez Company installs a computerized manufacturing machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $48,400.
nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

$3,340

Explanation:

Step 1  : Determine the Depreciation rate

<em>Depreciation rate = Cost - Salvage Value ÷ Estimated Units</em>

Depreciation rate = $0.10

Step 2 : Depreciation Expense

<em>Depreciation Expense = Depreciation rate x units produced</em>

Depreciation Expense = $3,340

Therefore,

the machine's second-year depreciation using the units-of-production method is $3,340

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have $10,000 in your checking account. You withdraw $500 cash from your account and hide it under your pillow for fu
trapecia [35]

Answer:

The Money supply will decrease by $4,500

Explanation:

What will be the maximum impact on money supply today as a result of your action is that the Money supply will decrease by $4,500.

Since we assumed that you have $10,000 in your account in which you withdraw $500 cash from your account and hide it under your pillow for future use, therefore based this scenario or actions carried by you it means that your bank have fewer or lesser funds available to make loans which means the decrease will tend to affect the money supply.

Hence, you can easily calculate the effect by using the simple money multiplier.

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3 years ago
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