Answer: Marginal cost under demand and supply theory. Answer is 80
Explanation: QD 100-4P, Marginal Cost =S4,QS =6P -20. So
the calculation goes thus = QS=6p-20
Inputing Marginal value of 4 equates 100-4(4)
100-16 = 84
QS=6(4)-4
24-20=4
profit maximisation =QD-QS
84-4=80
Answer: D. All of these choices are correct.
Explanation:
Lean manufacturing occurs when an organisation produces goods using as little resources as they can, while still producing enough goods at the correct quality.
This includes all options (a-c) for the following reasons:
a. Supplier partnering - it is important to have a smooth operations in terms of the organisation's relationships with their partners. This leads to an efficient supply management because this leads to better control over the flow of material and production planning, especially when the aim is to use minimal resourses.
b. Employee involvement - in lean manufacturing, less human effort is required. However high quality goods at the right quanity still needs to be produced.Therefore it is important for the little employees needed, to work cohesively to produce these goods effectively and efficiently.
c. Product orientated production layout - Also known as assembly line, this is when employees perfom minimal functions at a time, to produce large quantities of a few types of products that are different.
So for lean manufacturing to be implemented and operate effectively, it requires all these options.
Answer:
a.mechanistic
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that it seems that Fine Lines Inc. is using a mechanistic structure. This type of structure, also known as a bureaucratic structure, is a structure based on a single formal and centralized network where authority comes from the top-level managers who make most of the decisions.
Answer:
The statement is True as well as correct
Explanation:
Allowance method is the financial term which is defined as the uncollectible accounts receivable procedure that reports the estimate of the bad debt expense in the same accounting or fiscal year as the sale.
Under this method, it is used to adjust the accounts receivable which appears on the balance sheet.
For example,
If the company has the credit sales of $800,000 in December and estimate that the 4% will be uncollectible. Then using this method, computing the uncollectible as:
Bad debt expense = Sales × Estimate uncollectible
= $800,000 × 4%
= $32,000
So, this estimate the bad debt expense rather than wait to see which customer will not able to collect.
Answer:
Explanation:
a.Present value of inflows=cash inflow*Present value of discounting factor(rate%,time period)
=150,000/1.12+210,000/1.12^2+360,000/1.12^3
=557580.18
NPV=Present value of inflows-Present value of outflows
=557580.18-460,000
=$97580.18(Approx)=Value of factory
b.Hence since net present value is positive;factory is a good investment
(Yes)
