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Serga [27]
2 years ago
6

For which pairs of functions is (f * g) (x)?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ronch [10]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The pairs of functions that best represent the equation are f(x)=x² and g(x)=1/x

Step-by-step explanation:

For this problem, you will have to multiply each equation in the answer choices until you find the pair that has a product of x.

Let's start with the first answer choice.

(f * g)(x)

<em>f(x)=x²</em>

<em>g(x)=1/x</em>

Now, we multiply these terms together.

x² * 1/x = x²/x

Now, divide x from x². When you are dividing exponents, the exponential numbers subtract. So, since there is no exponent on x, then we assume this exponent to be 1. So, when dividing you will subtract 1 from 2.

x²/x = x

So, the answer to the problem is answer choice A. These functions multiply together to get you a final product of x.

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Sort each equation according to whether it has one solution, infinitely many solutions, or no solution.
Aliun [14]
《ANSWER》

《LINEAR EQUATIONS》

Solving all we get as

↪1) 5 (x -2) = 5x - 7

since after solving X is cancelled , NO SOLUTION

↪2) -3 (x - 4) = -3x + 12

SINCE after solving X is any value , infinitely many solutions

↪3) 4 (x + 1) = 3x + 4

solving we get as , 4x+ 4 = 3x + 4 =》 X =0

only one solution

↪4) -2 (x-3) = 2x - 6

Only one solution

↪5) 6 (x + 5) = 6x + 11

NO SOLUTION

All the equations are solved by the distributive law of algebra
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A poker hand is a set of 5 cards randomly chosen from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of a (a) royal flush (ten, jack,
zysi [14]

Answer:

a) 0.000001539

b) 0.00001385

c) 0.0002401

d) 0.001441

e) 0.001966

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 52 deck of cards, and the hand of the poker is 5 set, then the total number of hands achievable would be

T = 52! / 5!(52 - 5)!

T = 52! / 5! 47 !

T = 2598560 possibilities.

a) There are 4 ways of getting a royal flush. So the probability of getting a royal flush is

4 / 2598560 =

0.000001539

b) There are 9 hands from the 5 card hands, and also, there are 4 possible suits. So then, the probability is

9 * 4 / 2598560 =

36 / 2598560 =

0.00001385

c) There are 13 possible ways to get a four of a kind, since there are 5 cards with the poker, the remaining would be taken from the 48 remaining cards, thus

13 * 48 / 2598560 =

624 / 2598560 =

0.0002401

d) 3 of a kind in conjunction with a pair is needed to form a full house. This 3 of a kind can be gotten from any 4 suits. Then again, the pair has two cards with the same face value. So,

4! / 2! (4 - 2)! =

4! / 2! 2! = 6

That means, there are 6 possible ways to get our needed suits. Then, the probability of getting a full house is

13 * 4 * 12 * 6 / 2598560 =

3744 / 2598560 =

0.001441

e) To get a flush, all the 5 cards in the hand needs to have the same suit. Now, there are 13 different types of cards with only 5 cards being in the hand, thus

13! / 5! (13 - 5)! =

13! / 5! 8! = 1287

Now, recall that the question specifically asked us not to include any straight. There are 10 straights that can be gotten, and thus, we subtract it.

1287 - 10 = 1277

Since there are 4 suits, the probability of getting a flush is

1277 * 4 / 2598560 =

5108 / 2598560 = 0.001966

5 0
3 years ago
What is the value of x?
Mnenie [13.5K]
Hello! i'm not quite sure if this is the answer, but i believe it would be 76. I'm not that good with angles, but i'm trying my best to help! I hope the answer helped you! i'm sorry if i get it wrong though. If you have any questions, pm me! thanks!
6 0
3 years ago
Match the verbal description to the correct expression.
dusya [7]

Answer:

1.    n + 34

2.   n - 34

3.   n × 34

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 34 more than a number     n + 34

2. a number decreased by 34      n - 34

3. the product of a number and 34    n × 34

6 0
2 years ago
What is the midpointof the segment with endpoint (-3,7) and (9,5)?
PolarNik [594]
(-3,7)(9,5)

midpoint formula : (x1 + x2)/2 , (y1 + y1)/2

(-3 + 9)/2 , (7 + 5)/2 = (6/2, 12/2) = (3,6) <==
8 0
2 years ago
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