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Nana76 [90]
3 years ago
15

Gul Corp. considers the following capital structure optimal: 40% debt; 50% equity; and 10% preferred stock. Gul’s stock currentl

y sells for $50 per share. Gul’s beta is 1.8. The risk-free rate is 9 percent and the expected market return is 13 percent. Gul’s bond currently sells in the market for $1150. The bond carries an annual coupon payment of 12 % of the face value which is paid in two semiannual payments. The bond will mature in 15 years and its face value is $1000. The bond's annual yield to maturiy is 10.04%. The firm’s marginal tax rate is 40 percent. The Gul’s required return on the preferred stock is 13%. Find the firm’s overall cost of capital (WACC).
Business
1 answer:
Dafna11 [192]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

WACC 11.80960%

Explanation:

<u>For the cost of capital we will use the CAPM model</u>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free 0.09

market rate 0.13

premium market = (market rate - risk free) = 0.04

beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.8

Ke= 0.09 + 1.8 (0.04)  

Ke 0.162 = 16.2%

<u>Then we can calculate the WACC</u>

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+P+D}) + K_p(\frac{P}{E+P+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+P+D})

Ke=cost of capital= 0.162 (according to CAPM)

Equity weight =0.5

Kp= return on preferredstock = 0.13

Preferred Weight = 0.1

Kd= we use the actual market rate for the bebt = 10.04% = 0.1004

Debt Weight = 0.4

tax-rate = 40% = 0.4

WACC = 0.162(0.5) + 0.13(0.1) + 0.1004(1-0.4)(0.4)

WACC 11.80960%

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Explanation:

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Payback Period Payson Manufacturing is considering an investment in a new automated manufacturing system. The new system require
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Answer:

a. 4 years

b. 5 years

Explanation:

The payback period is the time taken for the cash inflows from an investment to equal to the initial cash outflow or amount invested. To get this, the cash inflow are deducted from the outflows until the net is zero.

Considering both expected cash flows (all amounts in $);

Period    Initial out flow   Inflow         Balance         Inflow         Balance

Year 0    (1,200,000)              0          (1,200,000)       0            (1,200,000)      

Year 1                             300,000       (900,000)    150,000     (1,050,000)

Year 2                            300,000       (600,000)    150,000     (1,050,000)

Year 3                            300,000       (300,000)    400,000     (1,050,000)  

Year 4                            300,000               0           400,000     (1,050,000)  

Year 5                                                                        100,000     (1,050,000)

From the table above, with an inflow of $300,000 yearly, the inflows would equal the total outflow in 4 years while the annual cash flows: $150,000, $150,000, $400,000, $400,000, and $100,000 would make the inflows equal to the outflows in 5 years.

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Answer:

The debt to equity mix = 74.65% - 25.35%

Explanation:

The computation of the debt to equity mix is shown below:

Debt is

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And, the Equity is

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Now

Percentage of debt financing

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= 74.65%

And, percentage of equity financing is

= $18 ÷ ($53 + $18)

= 25.35%

And, finally

The debt to equity mix = 74.65% - 25.35%

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