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creativ13 [48]
3 years ago
5

Which empire did not rule India between 300 B.C. and the 1600s

History
2 answers:
AleksAgata [21]3 years ago
7 0
Greek is the answer i believe
lina2011 [118]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: ITS B and D apex

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Explanation:

Like his father, Charles I imprisoned foes without a fair trial and squeezed the nation for money. By 1628, he needed Parliament's help and was forced to sign the Petition of Right, but he ignored the rules of it and dissolved Parliament. Charles and Laud tried to impose the Anglican prayer book on the Scottish, but they revolted. Charles I needed funds to suppress the rebellion, so he called on Parliament again. Parliament rebelled this time, claiming that Parliament could not be dissolved without its own consent. In 1642, he lashed back bringing his troops to the House of Commons to arrest its radical leaders.

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