Answer:
Explanation:
The formula to be used in calculation is FV = PV*(1+I)^n
FV - Future value at the end of periods
PV - Present value
r - interest rate
n - number of years
a. The amount due f the loan is repaid at the end of year 1
FV = 200*(1+0.14)^1 = 200*0.14 = $228
b. Repayment at the end of year 4
FV = 200*(1+0.14)^4 = 200* 1.6889 = $337.79
c. The amount due at the end of 8 year
FV = 200*(1+0.14)^8 = 200* 2.85 = $570.51
All of the options mentioned above are money market instruments.
A money market is an organized exchange market where participants can lend and borrow short-term, high-quality debt securities with an average maturity of one year or less. It includes instruments like tax anticipation notes, treasury notes, certificates of deposit, and commercial paper. It enables governments, banks, and other large institutions to sell short-term securities to fund their short-term cash flow needs. Money markets also allow individual investors to invest small amounts in a low-risk setting.
The money market contributes to the economic stability and development of a country by providing short-term liquidity to governments, commercial banks, and other large institutions. Investors with excess money that they do not need can invest in the money market and earn interest.
Learn more about the money market:
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Answer:
The correct word for the blank space is: higher.
Explanation:
Economies of Scale is a key concept for any business in any industry. It is also important for consumers trying to understand why smaller businesses may have to charge more for similar products made by larger companies. Overall, economies of scale mean <em>that production becomes more efficient as the number of goods being produced increases</em>.
Answer:
The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30
Explanation:
The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.
The present value of the given cash flows will be,
Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n
As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.
Present value = 2000 + 3000 / (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5
Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30
Answer:
B. monopoly firms but not for competitive firms.
Explanation:
Marginal revenue can become negative for monopoly firms but not for competitive firms.
A monopolist’s marginal revenue is always less than or equal to the price of the good.
Marginal revenue is the amount of revenue the firm receives for each additional unit of output. It is the difference between total revenue – price times quantity – at the new level of output and total revenue at the previous output (one unit less).
Since the monopolist’s marginal cost curve lies below its demand curve. When a monopoly increases amount sold, it has two effects on total revenue:
– the output effect: More output is sold, so Q is higher.
– the price effect: To sell more, the price must decrease, so P is lower.
For a competitive firm there is no price effect. The competitive firm can sell all it wants at the given price.
So the marginal revenue on a monopolist's additional unit sold is lower than the price, <u>because it gets less revenue for selling additional units.</u>
<u>Marginal revenue can become negative – that is, the total revenue decreases from one output level to the next.
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