Answer:
Firm’s sales uncollected for year is 42 days.
Explanation:
Account receivable turnover ratio = $621,000 / $70,422
Account receivable turnover ratio = 8.69
Thus, accounts receivable turnover ratio is 8.69
Average collection period = 365 / Account receivable turnover ratio
Average collection period = 365 days / 8.69
Average collection period = 42.00
Thus, firm’s sales uncollected for year is 42 days.
Answer:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Explanation:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Answer: False
Explanation: The operations defined in the given problem are performed by the project manager and not the project sponsor.
The project manager is typically considered as the owner of the project. Its main duties relates to providing necessary resources to complete the project. On the other hand the project manager is responsible for completing the project in the way it was planned to be.
Thus, the given statement is false.
<span>It should be laid out like this example:(November 10, 2015)</span>
A. For knowing today's value of the bequest we need to know the period of time.
When the first payment occure and how many payments were made.
b. Immediate value of bequest is $3,000 After one year it needto be 1.16*3,000=$3,480 Plus the second payment will be 1.04*3,000=$3,120