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Tasya [4]
3 years ago
9

Management of Childers Corporation is considering whether to purchase a new model 370 machine costing $459,000 or a new model 24

0 machine costing $415,000 to replace a machine that was purchased 4 years ago for $423,000. The old machine was used to make product M25A until it broke down last week. Unfortunately, the old machine cannot be repaired. Management has decided to buy the new model 240 machine. It has less capacity than the new model 370 machine, but its capacity is sufficient to continue making product M25A. Management also considered, but rejected, the alternative of simply dropping product M25A. If that were done, instead of investing $415,000 in the new machine, the money could be invested in a project that would return a total of $433,000. In making the decision to buy the model 240 machine rather than the model 370 machine, the sunk cost was:
Business
1 answer:
Paul [167]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The sunk cost is the old broken machine

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Model 370 machine costing $459,000

Model 240 machine costing $415,000

A machine was purchased 4 years ago for $423,000.

Management decided to buy the model 240.

A sunk cost is a cost that has previously been incurred and cannot be recovered. In this exercise, the sunk cost is the old broken machine. No matter what decision management makes, the machine is broken and can't be repaired or sold.

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In calculating a predetermined overhead rate, a recent trend in automated manufacturing operations is to choose an activity base
iragen [17]

Answer: c. machine hours.

Explanation:

In reference to Automated Operations, the Activity base that is usually used to in determining a pre-determined overhead rate are Machine hours.

It is standard practice to relate overhead to the Direct Labor involved in the production of a commodity and since in this case the direct Labor mostly consists of Machines (Automated) then it is best to relate activities to the Machine hours involved instead.

7 0
3 years ago
Consider the following scenario to answer the following questions: Kukla makes tables, with an opportunity cost of 3 rugs per ev
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

E

Explanation:

In this question, we are told to state what the reaction of Koka and Zola will be;

Kukla and Zola both like the proposal. As according to the given opportunity cost for Kukla (3 rugs per every 4 tables) she can get 1.5 rugs for 2 tables .But with the offer made now she can get 2 rugs for giving 2 tables.

Given the opportunity cost for Zola ( 2 tables per every 3 rugs ) she must give 3 rugs for getting 2 tables. But with the offer made she can now get 2 tables for giving away only 2 rugs .

So both Kukla and Zola are happy with the offer.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a firm has a cash cycle of 30 days and an operating cycle of 64 days, what is its average payment period
elixir [45]

Answer: 34 days

Explanation:

The average payment period is a measure that is used to show the time the firm takes on average to pay its creditors.

The formula is:

Cash cycle = Operating cycle - Average payment period

30 = 64 - APP

APP + 30 = 64

APP = 64 - 30

APP = 34 days

5 0
3 years ago
What is input, conversion process, and output
blondinia [14]
Hello!

Think of a machine. You put something in. This is the input. The conversion process is whatever goes on inside the machine. Let's say that the machine will spray paint a vase you put into it.  The vase is the input. The spray painting is the conversion process. What comes out of the machine, or the result, is the output. In our example it would be the painted vase.

The conversion process changes the input into the output.

For example, think of a function, or a table. Let's say that we have the rule, +1. Let's say our input is 1. The conversion process is +1. This makes 1 become the output of two.

I hope this helps!
6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the market portfolio is equally likely to increase by 24% or decrease by 8%. Security "X" goes up on average by 29%
Alex

Answer:

The expected return on security with a beta of 0.8 is closest to 7.2%.

Explanation:

This can be determined as follows:

Since the return of security Z remains at 4% despite the change in the market, security Z is the risk-free asset.

Note that a risk free asset is an asset which its returns does not change with change in the market.

Using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula, we have:

Er = Rf + (B * MPR) ............................................ (1)

Where;

ER = Expected return = ?

Rf = Risk-free rate = Rate of return of security z = 4%

B = Beta = 0.8

MPR = Market risk premium = Expected return on the market rate - Risk-free rate

Expected return on the market rate = (50% * 24%) + (50% *(-8%)) = 8%

Therefore, we have:

MPR = 8% - 4% = 4%

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have

Er = 4% + (0.8 * 4%)

Er = 0.072, or 7.2%

Therefore, the expected return on security with a beta of 0.8 is closest to 7.2%.

8 0
3 years ago
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