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shepuryov [24]
3 years ago
5

Can we use the acquiring firms WACC to value the target firm? If so what would be the reason?

Business
1 answer:
kondor19780726 [428]3 years ago
6 0
WACC is the weighted average cost of capital, and can be used to determine the company's discounted cash flow, (current value according to its estimated future cash flows). <span>All sources of capital, including </span>common stock<span>, </span>preferred stock<span>, </span>bonds<span> and any other </span>long-term debt<span>, are included in a WACC calculation. A firm’s WACC increases as the </span>beta<span> and </span>rate of return<span> on </span>equity<span> increase, as an increase in WACC denotes a decrease in </span>valuation<span> and an increase in </span>risk.<span>
</span>
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hoa [83]

Answer:

The correct answer is option b. average total costs are falling.

Explanation:

When marginal cost is below average total cost, average total cost will be falling whereas the average cost will be rising when the marginal cost is above average total cost.

A firm is highly productive and efficient when the average total cost is the lowest. At this point, the average total cost is also equal to the marginal cost i.e.

Average Total Cost (ATC) = Marginal Cost (MC).

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4 years ago
A corporation is concerned about their exposure to criminal liability after the most recent election cycle placed a number of ne
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

The strategy that would be least effective in reducing the company's criminal liability is:

D. It could donate to the election campaigns of the new members of Congress to establish goodwill.

Explanation:

While the other three options will effectively reduce the company's criminal liability exposure, option D is the least that is likely to have a positive or effective effect.  This implies that option D is most likely to aggravate the criminal liability of the company as it will be regarded as bribery to cover up a crime.

4 0
3 years ago
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ella [17]
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5 0
3 years ago
The current price of a stock is $50, the annual risk-free rate is 6%, and a 1-year call option with a strike price of $55 sells
wariber [46]

Answer:

$9.00.

Explanation:

The computation of the value of a put option is shown below:

Data provided in the question

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Risk free rate = 6%

Strike price = $55

Sale price = $7.20

Based on the above information

The value of put option is

Put = V - P + X exp(-r t)

= $7.20 - $50 + $55 e RF  - 0.06(1)

= $7.20 - $50 + $51.80

= $9.00

Hence, the value of put option is $9

6 0
3 years ago
In a process costing system, with the exception of the first department, each department receives output from the prior departme
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Process Costing system involved several processes or departments under which the next department receives partially completed product from the previous department. The first department receives the raw material and it does not receive any output from other department.  

Hence except the first department, each department receives output from the prior department as a partially processed product.

Hence the answer is <u>True.</u>



8 0
3 years ago
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