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Kamila [148]
3 years ago
5

The general arbitrage pricing theory (APT) differs from the single-factor capital asset pricingmodel (CAPM) because the APT_____

___.a. Places more emphasis on market risk.b. Minimizes the importance of diversification.c. Recognizes multiple unsystematic risk factors.d. Recognizes multiple systematic risk factors.
Business
1 answer:
klio [65]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": multiple systematic risk factors.

Explanation:

The Arbitrage Pricing Theory or APT weights the influence of different macroeconomic factors on an asset return. If the asset's price is different than the model's projection an opportunistic investor can buy and sell the asset for a profit. Those macroeconomic factors can include economic output, unemployment, inflation, savings or investments-specific considerations and they capture systematic risk.

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Jim is a firm’s marketing manager who is confident of himself and open to feedback. Moreover, he has the ability to motivate him
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

The answer is: Emotional intelligence

Explanation:

A person with emotional intelligence is able to identify and manage his own emotions and the emotions of the people around him.

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8 0
3 years ago
During 2019, Travis purchases $13,000 of used manufacturing equipment (7-year property) for use in his business, his only asset
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

$13,000

Explanation:

Most property purchased during 2019 and beyond, may be expenses using Section 179 tax deductions. The limit for 2019 was $1 million and that is way more than $13,000. Section 179 is one of the few benefits that small business got from the Tax Cut and Jobs Act, and it can be really useful.

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5 0
3 years ago
Refer to the following lease amortization schedule. The 10 payments are made annually starting with the beginning of the lease.
dsp73

Answer:

a) <em>What is the effective annual interest rate?</em>

Effective annual interest rate = 6,911/69,108

Effective annual interest rate = 0.100003

Effective annual interest rate = 10.00%

b) <em>What would the lessee record as annual amortization on the right-of-use asset using the straight-line method?</em>

Annual amortization on the right-of-use asset = Right of use asset / Lease term

= $81,108/10

= $8,110.8

c) <em>What is the outstanding balance after payment 9?</em>

Outstanding balance after 8th payment = $20,826

Effective interest = $20,826*10%

Effective interest = $2,082.60

Cash payment = $12,000

Decrease in balance = $12,000 - $2,082.60

Decrease in balance = $9,917.4

Outstanding balance after payment 9 = Outstanding balance after 8th payment - Decrease in balance

Outstanding balance after payment 9 = $20,826 - $9,917.4

Outstanding balance after payment 9 = $10,908.60

6 0
3 years ago
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