Answer:
The amounts of pretax and after-tax income can the company expect to earn from these predicted changes are $1,795,000 and $1,436,000 respectively.
Explanation:
The sales less the variable cost gives the contribution margin.
The contribution margin less the fixed cost gives the net operating income. Furthermore, net income is the difference between the total sales and the total costs (fixed and variable).
Both sales and variable cost are dependent on the number of units sold.
with these expected changes,
Pretax Income
= 40,500($205 - $145) - $635,000
= $1,795,000
After tax income
= 80% * $1,795,000
= $1,436,000
Answer:
Work in Process Inventory account at the end of September is $1,950
Explanation:
As all jobs at the beginning of september in the balance of Work in progress were finished, it's costs are now in Finished Goods Inventory. So are too, the two jobs started and finished during September. The Works in Process account records materials, labor and structure costs of order not finished yet at the end of the month.
At the end of september only Job 850 is not finished. The sum of materials, direct labor and overhed that is $1.950, is the balance of Work in Process Inventory account at the end of September.
<h2>Statistics about "Economic activity".</h2>
Explanation:
Economic indicators as stated in the question is right and I am enriching the definition with few other pointers.
- Analysis of Economic Performance
- Future prediction on the Performance
- Study of "Business cycle"
- Includes various "surveys of economy", report on earnings, "summary of economy"
- Help investors
- Assess about the investment
- Many indicators: a) Gross Domestic Product
b) Employment indicator
c) Consumer Price index
d) PMI Manufacturing & services
The answer is D. an exchange of currencies happens when you "trade" one currency for another, which can also be thought of buying one currency in the form of another currency.
So for example, if you were going to exchange the US Dollar for Mexican Pesos, the exchange rate is 1 USD to 17 MXN. Therefore, to get 17 MXN, you need to pay 1 USD.
Does that make sense?
Answer:
b. $6,600,000
Explanation:
The computation of the fee is shown below:
= Annual management fee + performance management fee
where,
Annual management fee = $400 million × 0.01 = $4 million
And, the performance management fee
= Incentive percentage × hedge fund × excess return
= 20% × $400 million × 3.25%
= $2.6 million
The excess return is
= {($445 million - $400 million) × $400 million - 8%}
= 11.25% - 8%
= 3.25%
So, the fee is
= $4 million + $2.6 million
= $6.6 million or $6,600,000
