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ValentinkaMS [17]
3 years ago
12

Younger Company has outstanding both common stock and nonparticipating, non-cumulative preferred stock. The liquidation value of

the preferred is equal to its par value. The book value per share of the common stock is unaffected by
a. the payment of a previously declared cash dividend on the common stock.
b. the declaration of a stock dividend on common stock, payable in common stock when the market price of the common stock is equal to its par value.
c. a 2-for-1 split of the common stock.
d. the declaration of a stock dividend on preferred stock, payable in preferred stock when the market price of the preferred stock is equal to its par value.
Business
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option B                                                

Explanation:

In simple words, A stock dividend refers to the payout to owners that is rendered not in cash but in securities. Such kind of  dividend payment has the benefit of satisfying stakeholders without decreasing the cash flow for the business. Usually, these dividends are decided to make as fragments paid out per existing securities in hand.

Whenever dividend is paid in stock is paid, the overall asset interest stays the very same on both the viewpoint of the lender and the viewpoint of the business. Both dividend payments therefore include a newspaper submission for the distribution issuing firm.

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3 years ago
Design Interiors has a cost of equity of 14.9 percent and a pretax cost of debt of 8.6 percent. The firm's target weighted avera
Savatey [412]

Answer:

0.73

Explanation:

Given that

WACC = 11%

Tax rate = 34%

Cost of equity = 14.9 %

Cost of debt = 8.6%

Recall that

WACC = (cost of equity × % of equity) + (cost of debt × % of debt) + ( 1 - tax rate)

We are to find

Cost of debt and cost of equity

Let

Cost of debt be x

Cost of equity be (1 - x)

Thus,

0.11 = (1 - x)(0.149) + (x)(0.086)(1 - 0.34)

x = 0.4228

Therefore,

Debt-equity ratio

= Cost of debt/cost of equity

= 0.4228/(1 - 0.4228)

= 0.73

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I am trying to understand the Opportunity cost. Can anyone help me please? I can't seem to get Economics, I really need help. Yo
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8 0
3 years ago
Treasury Bonds are _______.A. liquid, but not a store of value. B. a store of value, but not liquid. C. both liquid and a store
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

C. both liquid and a store of value.

Explanation:

Treasury Bonds are fixed interest long term government debt instrument issued by the government through the monetary authorities (Federal Reserve or Central Bank) to raise fund from the public. Treasury bond has a maturity of between 10 and 30 years.

Treasury bonds is one of the most liquid financial instrument in the world as  it can be turned to cash within a day.

The T-Bond, as treasury bonds is often called is a good store of value as it pays interest and the principal is backed by a legal contract.

5 0
3 years ago
If house A had a sale price of $70,000, monthly rent of $500, and a GRM of 140; House B had a sale price of $68,500, monthly ren
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

$69,300

Explanation:

Given the following :

House A :

Sales price = $70,000

Monthly rent = $500

GRM = 140

House B :

Sales price = $68,500

Monthly rent = $490

GRM = 139.8

House C :

Sales price = $70,500

Monthly rent = $485

GRM = 139.6

The gross rent multiplier GRM is obtained as the proportion of the sale price of a property to it's monthly rent.

GRM = (Sales price / monthly rent)

If a property is rented for 495 and house A is the

most comparable, then

Sales price will be closest to:

GRM of House A × monthly rent of property

140 × $495 = $69,300

7 0
3 years ago
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